Since I quoted you, I did fix "factual" and I did bolden one statement to say that I thought your answer to the OP was a good one, so I responded to it earlier.
Hopefully you'll agree that the John10 sheep passage is a favorite of the Calvinistic tradition, which you apparently don't see yourself holding to? So is Rom3:11.
Here was your original explicit answer to the OP:
I think we dealt with the "My sheep" matter from the perspective of John6. The way I understand it, the sheep are His because our Father gave them to Him.
I think
@GWH providing this: [Jhn 17:9 KJV] "
I pray for them. I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine." shows further that those who are His are His because our Father gave them to Him because they are our Father's. Additionally, as is typical for John, he seems to be blurring the lines between God the Father and God the Son (You gave them to Me because they are Yours - if they belong to the Father then they belong to the Son)
Going back to John6 where we left off, the only thing I see there in regard to this topic is that God is doing the work of drawing unbelievers to His Son - and to Himself - by teaching them. And those that hear and learn from Him come to Jesus when our Father gives them to Him.
Not to blur this further, but it seems to me that our Father draws men to His Son and gives them to His Son, and then Jesus says no one can come to the Father if not through Him. Hopefully we begin to see that there are many things to think about here.
It seems you &
@GWH agree that God desires all men to be saved per 1Tim2. I've provided some information re: Rom3:11 and don't think Paul is saying no men ever seek God - which goes against many Scriptures - but is rather making a case that all men are (were in the case of believers) under sin. I can say something else re: 1Tim2 which I think ties to the concept of hearing and learning from the Father if it's of interest
So my question to you and @GWH and anyone else and with the intent not to devolve into a battle over election, but rather to remain with the OP and your John10 explicit answer to it, is 'why do some men become His sheep (believe per the OP) and why do some men not?'
I opened my answer to the OP with an opinion re: men's disobedience and I and others I think have pointed to what seem to be Biblical reasons for their disobedience. To be clear, the specific reasons I'm referring to are mainly volitional.
Any interest?