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verses you asked for. 1. Matthew 28:19 2. John 1:14. 3. 1 Thess 4:17. I will now read the rest of your post.

Also in the New Covenant, the Spirit is poured out on all flesh, meaning believers of every tongue, tribe, kindred, and nation. Even upon servants and hand maids. This is different, it appears, then what happened in the Old Covenant. Or else why did the prophet say it would happen in the last...

As well as the fact that faith itself is a gift of God.

Ps. In in addition, we need to remember that under the old covenant the SPIRIT departed from Saul and also when David fell into the grossest sin he prayed “take not your Holy Spirit for me”. But in the New Covenant, the Spirit dwells in us and abides with us forever. And the New Covenant...

I never said that regeneration is something we do. I still don’t see anywhere in the scripture where one is born again before they believe on the gospel. Read the following. Nicodemus was not born again in John 3. Jesus said the Spirit of truth was dwelling WITH believers in John 14 and WOULD...

What you are describing in the paragraphs that start with “ I know someone who thinks”…splounds like Cerenthius or adoptionism, which I reject. But chapters like John 1, Johnny 17, and the baptism accounts show a clear distinction between persons in the Godhead.

I agree this question is not something to divide over. In the Old Testament, many were saved without fully having heard the Gospel or perhaps more properly not having understood the gospel which was preached in types and shadows and was a mystery until these last days. . But to me, born again...

one of my five favorite passages in the Bible is John 17:5. Jesus prays to the Father and says “ glorify the Son with the Glore He had before the world began” He was not praying to Himself.

I only disagree with regeneration before hearing the Gospel. If you can show me where scripture teaches that, I would accept it.

In the beginning was the Logos. (imperfect tense, timeless existence) The Word was with God. (Showing distinction between the person of the Father and the Logos. The Word was God. ( yet the Word ontologically is Deity) The Word was made flesh.

If you don’t believe in the Trinity, that logically leads to polytheism, because Jesus is called God in many places and there is a clear distinction of person between Father and Logos. The Trinity is the only way to make sense of the New Testament.

Where in the scriptures do you see predestination used that way?

A. The wicked act according to their innnately fallen nature B. You don’t have to teach a child/person how to sin. It comes naturally to them. C. It is in the fallen nature of man to sin even before he is able to just as it is in the nature of a lion to hunt and eat meat even before it is able...

It doesn’t matter what it means to me. What matters is what the author meant and intended, both what God and the man He used meant. Almost always there were be one interpretation, though there are many applications of a text. The only time there is more than one meaning is in dual fulfillment...

No. But I believe in raising children in the Word.

What does the verse say about the condition man is born in?

Amen. We agree on that. And Adam was our federal head before we were in Christ. We died in Adam and were raised in Christ.

It means precisely what it says. There is no hidden meaning in the verse.

Is that what 1 Corinthians 15: 21-22 teaches? I don’t see any reference or even allusion to Mary in the text.

The verses I post are very clear, especially when read in context. God’s word is better than our opinions.