The Error of KJV-Onlyism
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Adding to my earlier post…
The inspiration is on the original only. God did not re-inspire each copyist, translator or publisher as they laboured.
The inspiration remains effective through the processes of copying and translating, so what you or I hold today is still the inspired word of God just as what Timothy held was.
This issue of inspiration gets muddy when people foolishly claim that only one translation in a language can be the inspired word of God, or that a particular translation was re-inspired.
The inspiration is on the original only. God did not re-inspire each copyist, translator or publisher as they laboured.
The inspiration remains effective through the processes of copying and translating, so what you or I hold today is still the inspired word of God just as what Timothy held was.
This issue of inspiration gets muddy when people foolishly claim that only one translation in a language can be the inspired word of God, or that a particular translation was re-inspired.
i'm just gonna argue no one can get the idea of KJVO from the Bible itself. if one becomes a believer and just reads the Bible, KJVO ain't there. you'd have to hear the propaganda from outside the Scriptures to arrive at that conclusion.
i also find it alarmingly Anglo-centric, as though God doesn't care enough for all the non-English speaking Christians through the ages to give them a so-called "perfect" translation.
i also find it alarmingly Anglo-centric, as though God doesn't care enough for all the non-English speaking Christians through the ages to give them a so-called "perfect" translation.
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I posted elsewhere.
The same type of verb forms are used for 'sieze' and 'lie' with in one of the rape cases that is used to describe writing a letter of divorcement. My point is that the verb, translated as a command in the KJV, and even more strongly so in certain other translations, need not be interpreted as a command, but as setting up a case. The verb can be a command. In the case of rape described in Deuteronomy 22, 'lie' is not a command, clearly. In Matthew 19, the Pharisees and the Lord Jesus differ as to whether giving the divorce certificate was a command or something allowed by Moses.
The KJV gives credence to the Pharisee view. Many other translations set the giving of the divorce certificate in Deuteronomy 24 as laying out a case.
The same type of verb forms are used for 'sieze' and 'lie' with in one of the rape cases that is used to describe writing a letter of divorcement. My point is that the verb, translated as a command in the KJV, and even more strongly so in certain other translations, need not be interpreted as a command, but as setting up a case. The verb can be a command. In the case of rape described in Deuteronomy 22, 'lie' is not a command, clearly. In Matthew 19, the Pharisees and the Lord Jesus differ as to whether giving the divorce certificate was a command or something allowed by Moses.
The KJV gives credence to the Pharisee view. Many other translations set the giving of the divorce certificate in Deuteronomy 24 as laying out a case.