You are correct about this particular issue. A true copy is inspired Scripture just as the original is inspired Scripture. The same holds for diligent and honest translations from originals or true copies.
The Error of KJV-Onlyism
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His ideas on this particular issue are not bizarre at all; they just need a little adjustment.
Adding to my earlier post…
The inspiration is on the original only. God did not re-inspire each copyist, translator or publisher as they laboured.
The inspiration remains effective through the processes of copying and translating, so what you or I hold today is still the inspired word of God just as what Timothy held was.
This issue of inspiration gets muddy when people foolishly claim that only one translation in a language can be the inspired word of God, or that a particular translation was re-inspired.
Ever since I've been a member of this forum it's been more than a little obvious that it's been the modernist liberals who have been those most divisive.
Why not? Is anything to hard for the Lord? Did Timothy have the originals? Copies can certainly be inspired. We see many examples in the scriptures themselves.
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i'm just gonna argue no one can get the idea of KJVO from the Bible itself. if one becomes a believer and just reads the Bible, KJVO ain't there. you'd have to hear the propaganda from outside the Scriptures to arrive at that conclusion.
i also find it alarmingly Anglo-centric, as though God doesn't care enough for all the non-English speaking Christians through the ages to give them a so-called "perfect" translation.
i also find it alarmingly Anglo-centric, as though God doesn't care enough for all the non-English speaking Christians through the ages to give them a so-called "perfect" translation.
If this is true, there would be no errors found in the diligent and honest translations. Inspired scripture cannot contain errors. A faithful witness cannot lie, and that's what the KJV has been through the years, a faithful witness.
Really? Which members, exactly, are these ‘modernist liberals’, and on what evidence (in each case) do you make this accusation on their sociopolitical alignment?
brother, you're surely not equating the people God chose to represent Him to the world in the Old Testament with English speakers?
Yes, and as N6 clarified, he was speaking of copies, which came through earlier with
his mentioning how meticulous the Israelis were with copying Scriptural texts.
I posted elsewhere.
The same type of verb forms are used for 'sieze' and 'lie' with in one of the rape cases that is used to describe writing a letter of divorcement. My point is that the verb, translated as a command in the KJV, and even more strongly so in certain other translations, need not be interpreted as a command, but as setting up a case. The verb can be a command. In the case of rape described in Deuteronomy 22, 'lie' is not a command, clearly. In Matthew 19, the Pharisees and the Lord Jesus differ as to whether giving the divorce certificate was a command or something allowed by Moses.
The KJV gives credence to the Pharisee view. Many other translations set the giving of the divorce certificate in Deuteronomy 24 as laying out a case.