The Error of KJV-Onlyism

[presidente]

Umm, so far, I haven't seen posted here a legit error in KJB. Not one is presented here has been done so far.

Presidente's offer of "logos" for the "word" does not satisfy or justify his objection. We all know one Greek word can be translated in many ways. Say for example for the Greek word “eis”. It could be translated so far as “for”, “into”,“unto”, “to”, “on”, “toward”, “against”,“among” and many others. So, insisting “logos” could only mean “word” is incorrect. Logos is the same as preaching as per Whiner in his Greek rule especially when it is in genitive. Thayers, Strong, and many others correctly agreed to this. I think, this is basic, and saying a Greek word means only one meaning is not true at all.

I wouldn't say the KJV is 'incorrect' in that verse, but that translations that use 'logos' are better on this one point, from a formal equivalence standpoint, because they are not interpreting the meaning of the word for the reader. Keeping 'word' there preserves some aspect of the meaning that the KJV does not convey.

And there is no reason to think that the KJV authors were inspired to write scripture like Paul who wrote the epistle. There is no reason to think that the actual Hebrew and Greek books ceased to be inspired so that God could 'preserve His word' in the KJV, so that the KJV could be 'the one.'

 

[Lanolin]

Does anyone here know or speak latin.

Just wondered if there was any errors in the vulgate

Before mass printing production or movable type scribes copied books by hand thats why they called manuscripts.

Typing the Bible made things easier as you could do 100s and even 1000s of copies on a print run. Before doing so you need a proofreader...in fact, you need quite a few because someone will always pick up something someone else missed. The first print run is a galley run, and uncorrected proofs read first before final edition. Once its set though, the type is not changed. They dont want to print heaps of copies only to find that theres mistakes on page 50 or whatever.

Correcting typos can be laborious but needs to be done diligently. They cant just cross it out, the letter, ever jot or tittle, needs to be removed and replaced. Each page needs to be clean. If its wrong, they start all over again.

Readers need to trust that what they read is correct and what the author intended. This doesnt just mean all the spelling and grammar is right but that the words are what the author intended to say.

Mashing up the Bible or distorting it, adding extra things or cutting away sentences does not produce pure Gods word.

Translation is also a thing thats a separate issue but within a translation the scripture must be perfect.
People saying theres errors in KJV more likely have issues with the translation than actually the scripture integrity itself. There have been many editions of the KJV and if some had errors in it was quickly corrected and revised for the next print run. Which as we see it has been...because of NJKV and all the revised editions.

But that in effect makes a whole new edition of the Bible if its tinkered with too much.

The issue is which edition is the true one. Lets take a book like say Jane Austens pride and prejudice...how can we be sure we reading what she originally wrote and put out to publication. No we dont want a parody of her words or abridged edition, or a childrens version, or someone elses interpretation of what she wrote. And if we want to read it not in English, the translators must set aside their own notions and do the best they can translating her work into langauge other readers can understand without losing anything of the story.

 

[presidente]

I am aware that there are alternate ways to say the same thing in Scripture. In this case your bring up, it’s not proof of the existence of variant readings whereby it means something else entirely different. One is merely making assumptions that this is so. You would need a series of verses or passages clearly referring to the art of Textual Criticism and it is just not there. Jesus was not asked about any textual variants. He simply quoted Scripture with authority. Neither did Jesus or the apostles believe that there were errors in the Scriptures and they had to piece them together in the hope that they would have maybe have them perfectly someday. Nowhere is it stated in Scripture that only the originals are inspired. We know that is false by the testimony of Scripture.

Variant readings? I did not even mention that. The Masoretic text added vowel pointings that were not in the original. In places, those vowel pointings lead to interpretations that are different from how the apostles interpreted passages and different from the LXX. They also vowel pointed Psalm 22 in such a way as to not be about the crucifixion. Sometimes the KJV just goes with the Masoretic vowel pointings. Psalm 22 is an exception.

 

[John146]

And there is no reason to think that the KJV authors were inspired to write scripture like Paul who wrote the epistle.

There is an important piece of information that you must understand when it comes to biblical inspiration. It was the WORDS that were inspired, not the men! God worked through men by His Holy Spirit with the result of the WORDS being inspired. The words are what God breathed life into, not the men. The words of God are living!

16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

 

[Lanolin]

of course KJV is anglo centric, it used the words oak for trees, and imperial measures for some things. I dont know about the unicorns but those are english words to describe what to them was foreign because back then they had no words in english for those things. Many of the words in the Bible are simply transliterations of words in greek and hebrew.

If you go to italy, the pictures of Jesus and all biblical paintings the people in them look italian.

People dont really know how much is really lost in translation but see the Jews had scriptures in their own tongue, and Jesus in the flesh amongst them and some people still couldnt see Him in that. Its the spirit that makes Gods words come alive.

Some translations are dead letters, others are shall we say anointed or inspired. You just need discernment to know what you are reading is actually Gods word to you. You shouldnt need to fight and be constantly correcting something you read.

 

[presidente]

excuse me

what is said in deuteronomy and how Jesus interpreted it was that divorce was allowed for the hard of heart. This does not make KJV wrong. I dont see what the issue is....Jesus knew and quoted from Deuteronomy and of course knew all the laws of the prophets but he was just saying WHY it was so.

Orthodox Jews believe a man must divorce his wife if she commits adultery, and he accepts the testimony (generally, there can be exceptions and variations in interpretation among them.) If you read the discussion between Jesus and the Pharisees, they say that Moses commanded giving the certificate. Jesus said Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts _allowed_ divorce, but from the beginning it was not so.

The 'let him' in the KJV is a soft command form. It's not as strong as 'shall' in some other translations, but sides on the 'command' interpretation, more in line with the Pharisees. Look at the NKJV:

24 “When a man takes a wife and marries her, and it happens that she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found some [a]uncleanness in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, puts it in her hand, and sends her out of his house, 2 when she has departed from his house, and goes and becomes another man’s wife, 3 if the latter husband detests her and writes her a certificate of divorce, puts it in her hand, and sends her out of his house, or if the latter husband dies who took her as his wife, 4 then her former husband who divorced her must not take her back to be his wife after she has been defiled; for that is an abomination before the Lord, and you shall not bring sin on the land which the Lord your God is giving you as an inheritance.

The NIV is similar here. The divorce certificate part here is presented as setting up a scenario. The command is for the former husband not to take her back after she has been defiled.

The verb forms could be translated or interpreted as either commands or how they are presented in the NKJV. In another thread, I posted how the same types of Hebrew verb forms or used to describe a case where a man _forces_ and _lies_ with a virgin, but it is not a command to do so. That is just describing a scenario. The command part has to do with her not being executed because she was not at fault.

He did that with a lot of laws not just divorce, for example woman caught in adultery was forgiven and not stoned and Jesus also asked about the MEN who were stoning her whether they were sinning as well. He interpreted them for the spirit and not the letter,

Some lawyers use the concept of 'spirit of the law.' But that's not how it is used in II Corinthians. We receive the Spirit, but the letter kills. So no 'spirit of the law'.

[qutoe]This does not mean translators actually need to rewrite the OT to conform with what Jesus in the NT interpreted. its actually a mystery not obvious to those who dont have faith for them to seek out.

Deuteronomy 24 is ambiguous, Christ interpreted it one way, and not another. The KJV sided with the way the Pharisees interpreted it, probably unintentionally.

The forcing of a betrothed damsel just seems like a case of date rape. Its not said whether the rapist is actually the one who is betrothed to her either. Its not related to the divorce secenario, and divorce is not written as command either 'let him write a bill of divorce' is not saying he MUST divorce her.

The similarity is the type of verbs used, as I explained in the thread on Roman Catholicsm and divorce.

Different rape scenarios are mentioned. If one rapes someone else's betrothed, that was a death penalty sin/crime.

 

[John146]

The 'let him' in the KJV is a soft command form.

Soft?

3 And God said, Let there be light: and there was light.

 

[Lanolin]

Orthodox Jews believe a man must divorce his wife if she commits adultery, and he accepts the testimony (generally, there can be exceptions and variations in interpretation among them.) If you read the discussion between Jesus and the Pharisees, they say that Moses commanded giving the certificate. Jesus said Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts _allowed_ divorce, but from the beginning it was not so.

The 'let him' in the KJV is a soft command form. It's not as strong as 'shall' in some other translations, but sides on the 'command' interpretation, more in line with the Pharisees. Look at the NKJV:

24 “When a man takes a wife and marries her, and it happens that she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found some [a]uncleanness in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, puts it in her hand, and sends her out of his house, 2 when she has departed from his house, and goes and becomes another man’s wife, 3 if the latter husband detests her and writes her a certificate of divorce, puts it in her hand, and sends her out of his house, or if the latter husband dies who took her as his wife, 4 then her former husband who divorced her must not take her back to be his wife after she has been defiled; for that is an abomination before the Lord, and you shall not bring sin on the land which the Lord your God is giving you as an inheritance.

The NIV is similar here. The divorce certificate part here is presented as setting up a scenario. The command is for the former husband not to take her back after she has been defiled.

The verb forms could be translated or interpreted as either commands or how they are presented in the NKJV. In another thread, I posted how the same types of Hebrew verb forms or used to describe a case where a man _forces_ and _lies_ with a virgin, but it is not a command to do so. That is just describing a scenario. The command part has to do with her not being executed because she was not at fault.



Some lawyers use the concept of 'spirit of the law.' But that's not how it is used in II Corinthians. We receive the Spirit, but the letter kills. So no 'spirit of the law'.

[qutoe]This does not mean translators actually need to rewrite the OT to conform with what Jesus in the NT interpreted. its actually a mystery not obvious to those who dont have faith for them to seek out.

Sorry you lost me there.

Not sure what you trying to argue

'In the beginning it was not so' Jesus meaning, in the beginning, peoples hearts were not hard. This was BEFORE Moses time, like right at the beginning of creation. He was meaning about the nature of human love, man and woman want to be together.

 

[Lanolin]

You dont have a hard heart when you a baby. Over time when you get older, your heart may harden. This is why people have heart attacks or why people are mean and cruel.

This is why in the Bible God wants peoples hearts soft.

I guess if you never loved, you wouldnt understand what thats about.

 

[Magenta]

There is an important piece of information that you must understand when it comes to biblical inspiration. It was the WORDS that were inspired, not the men! God worked through men by His Holy Spirit with the result of the WORDS being inspired. The words are what God breathed life into, not the men. The words of God are living!

16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

God was not speaking Elizabethan English...

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

Adding to my earlier post…

The inspiration is on the original only. God did not re-inspire each copyist, translator or publisher as they laboured.

The inspiration remains effective through the processes of copying and translating, so what you or I hold today is still the inspired word of God just as what Timothy held was.

This issue of inspiration gets muddy when people foolishly claim that only one translation in a language can be the inspired word of God, or that a particular translation was re-inspired.

Do you believe God was involved in the giving of the cannon of Scripture?
There is no page in Scripture listing out the books that are to be in our Bible.
Yet, God would have had to move in men to guide them to choose the right books to put in the Protestant Bible.
It was not solely the minds of men and or their working alone. It was not solely their great brains that made that happen.

Job says this about inspiration.

“But there is a spirit in man:
and the inspiration of the Almighty
giveth them understanding.”
(Job 32:8).

So the inspiration of the Almighty gives the spirit in man understanding.
Scripture was written down when holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost (2 Peter 1:20-21). Yet, even when they gave a record or written account of when these holy men of God spake (being moved by the Holy Ghost), they did so by the inspiration of the Almighty to have understanding to write down what these holy men of God said. They were writing by God giving them the understanding. Scripture is given by inspiration of God (2 Timothy 3:16). For the inspiration of the Almighty gives them understanding to do so.

So, when a true pure copy by God is made into another language, in order for it to truly be Scripture, then it would naturally be given by inspiration of God according to the Bible. If it is not that, then they are corrupted Scriptures that would not be given by the inspiration of the Almighty. They would simply be Bibles created by men’s intellects alone and or by carnal reasoning. In such a case, it would be a hybrid Bible that has true parts, and false parts.

If inspiration is God giving us understanding, then naturally the KJB would be guided by God. So the spirits of the KJB translators would be given the inspiration of the Almighty to have the understanding to translate correctly what was in the originals manuscripts.

Jesus said, “…ye can discern the face of the sky; but can ye not discern the signs of the times?” (Matthew 16:3).

In other words, Jesus is saying to the Jews that they lacked spiritual discernment to be able to to recognize the prophecy of His own words in that He said He would be three days and three nights in the heart of the Earth (Which was parallel to Jonah being three days and three nights in the great fish). Today, it is no different when it comes to the Word of God (i.e., the Communicated Word). As Scripture repeatedly tells us it is perfect and would be preserved and would be in a book. Scripture says it cannot be broken. It shows us that there are many who are not discerning things correctly. They willfully ignore heretical doctrines in their own Bibles and they willfully ignore the heretical origins of the Modern Bible movement and seek out the wisdom of men instead of God and His Word alone. They are not able to discern the times that we are in the Laodicean age and the corrupted Modern Bible movement that gets men to doubt the Bible is all a part of that. They are not able to recognize in Bible history, the true Word of God even when such a translation was almost destroyed by the Catholic Church. They are not able to recognize that the KJB translators and their credentials far surpass any other group in a translation in human history. They are not able to recognize that even unbelievers speak like the King James Bible with the KJB’s popularization of the Bible’s idioms. They are not able to see that it was authorized by a king and that is significant in Scripture. They are not able to see that the KJB is the most printed book in the world and the most influential book. They are not able to see the superiors of the KJB with it’s personal pronouns and that it was not motivated by a copyright in it’s creation, unlike most Modern Bibles.

Psalms 119:130
"The entrance of thy words giveth light; it giveth understanding unto the simple."

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

Do you believe God was involved in the giving of the cannon of Scripture?
There is no page in Scripture listing out the books that are to be in our Bible.
Yet, God would have had to move in men to guide them to choose the right books to put in the Protestant Bible.
It was not solely the minds of men and or their working alone. It was not solely their great brains that made that happen.

Job says this about inspiration.

“But there is a spirit in man:
and the inspiration of the Almighty
giveth them understanding.”
(Job 32:8).

So the inspiration of the Almighty gives the spirit in man understanding.
Scripture was written down when holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost (2 Peter 1:20-21). Yet, even when they gave a record or written account of when these holy men of God spake (being moved by the Holy Ghost), they did so by the inspiration of the Almighty to have understanding to write down what these holy men of God said. They were writing by God giving them the understanding. Scripture is given by inspiration of God (2 Timothy 3:16). For the inspiration of the Almighty gives them understanding to do so.

So, when a true pure copy by God is made into another language, in order for it to truly be Scripture, then it would naturally be given by inspiration of God according to the Bible. If it is not that, then they are corrupted Scriptures that would not be given by the inspiration of the Almighty. They would simply be Bibles created by men’s intellects alone and or by carnal reasoning. In such a case, it would be a hybrid Bible that has true parts, and false parts.

If inspiration is God giving us understanding, then naturally the KJB would be guided by God. So the spirits of the KJB translators would be given the inspiration of the Almighty to have the understanding to translate correctly what was in the originals manuscripts.

Jesus said, “…ye can discern the face of the sky; but can ye not discern the signs of the times?” (Matthew 16:3).

In other words, Jesus is saying to the Jews that they lacked spiritual discernment to be able to to recognize the prophecy of His own words in that He said He would be three days and three nights in the heart of the Earth (Which was parallel to Jonah being three days and three nights in the great fish). Today, it is no different when it comes to the Word of God (i.e., the Communicated Word). As Scripture repeatedly tells us it is perfect and would be preserved and would be in a book. Scripture says it cannot be broken. It shows us that there are many who are not discerning things correctly. They willfully ignore heretical doctrines in their own Bibles and they willfully ignore the heretical origins of the Modern Bible movement and seek out the wisdom of men instead of God and His Word alone. They are not able to discern the times that we are in the Laodicean age and the corrupted Modern Bible movement that gets men to doubt the Bible is all a part of that. They are not able to recognize in Bible history, the true Word of God even when such a translation was almost destroyed by the Catholic Church. They are not able to recognize that the KJB translators and their credentials far surpass any other group in a translation in human history. They are not able to recognize that even unbelievers speak like the King James Bible with the KJB’s popularization of the Bible’s idioms. They are not able to see that it was authorized by a king and that is significant in Scripture. They are not able to see that the KJB is the most printed book in the world and the most influential book. They are not able to see the superiors of the KJB with it’s personal pronouns and that it was not motivated by a copyright in it’s creation, unlike most Modern Bibles.

Psalms 119:130
"The entrance of thy words giveth light; it giveth understanding unto the simple."

Meant to say, “the superiority of the KJB with it’s personal pronouns “ and not superiors.

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

Do you believe God was involved in the giving of the cannon of Scripture?
There is no page in Scripture listing out the books that are to be in our Bible.
Yet, God would have had to move in men to guide them to choose the right books to put in the Protestant Bible.
It was not solely the minds of men and or their working alone. It was not solely their great brains that made that happen.

Job says this about inspiration.

“But there is a spirit in man:
and the inspiration of the Almighty
giveth them understanding.”
(Job 32:8).

So the inspiration of the Almighty gives the spirit in man understanding.
Scripture was written down when holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost (2 Peter 1:20-21). Yet, even when they gave a record or written account of when these holy men of God spake (being moved by the Holy Ghost), they did so by the inspiration of the Almighty to have understanding to write down what these holy men of God said. They were writing by God giving them the understanding. Scripture is given by inspiration of God (2 Timothy 3:16). For the inspiration of the Almighty gives them understanding to do so.

So, when a true pure copy by God is made into another language, in order for it to truly be Scripture, then it would naturally be given by inspiration of God according to the Bible. If it is not that, then they are corrupted Scriptures that would not be given by the inspiration of the Almighty. They would simply be Bibles created by men’s intellects alone and or by carnal reasoning. In such a case, it would be a hybrid Bible that has true parts, and false parts.

If inspiration is God giving us understanding, then naturally the KJB would be guided by God. So the spirits of the KJB translators would be given the inspiration of the Almighty to have the understanding to translate correctly what was in the originals manuscripts.

Jesus said, “…ye can discern the face of the sky; but can ye not discern the signs of the times?” (Matthew 16:3).

In other words, Jesus is saying to the Jews that they lacked spiritual discernment to be able to to recognize the prophecy of His own words in that He said He would be three days and three nights in the heart of the Earth (Which was parallel to Jonah being three days and three nights in the great fish). Today, it is no different when it comes to the Word of God (i.e., the Communicated Word). As Scripture repeatedly tells us it is perfect and would be preserved and would be in a book. Scripture says it cannot be broken. It shows us that there are many who are not discerning things correctly. They willfully ignore heretical doctrines in their own Bibles and they willfully ignore the heretical origins of the Modern Bible movement and seek out the wisdom of men instead of God and His Word alone. They are not able to discern the times that we are in the Laodicean age and the corrupted Modern Bible movement that gets men to doubt the Bible is all a part of that. They are not able to recognize in Bible history, the true Word of God even when such a translation was almost destroyed by the Catholic Church. They are not able to recognize that the KJB translators and their credentials far surpass any other group in a translation in human history. They are not able to recognize that even unbelievers speak like the King James Bible with the KJB’s popularization of the Bible’s idioms. They are not able to see that it was authorized by a king and that is significant in Scripture. They are not able to see that the KJB is the most printed book in the world and the most influential book. They are not able to see the superiors of the KJB with it’s personal pronouns and that it was not motivated by a copyright in it’s creation, unlike most Modern Bibles.

Psalms 119:130
"The entrance of thy words giveth light; it giveth understanding unto the simple."

Meant to say, “There are many who are not discerning things correctly." And not "It shows us that there are many who are not discerning things correctly. “ The words “It shows us that” should have been removed.

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

Variant readings? I did not even mention that. The Masoretic text added vowel pointings that were not in the original. In places, those vowel pointings lead to interpretations that are different from how the apostles interpreted passages and different from the LXX. They also vowel pointed Psalm 22 in such a way as to not be about the crucifixion. Sometimes the KJV just goes with the Masoretic vowel pointings. Psalm 22 is an exception.

Notice that you ar not really interested in dealing with the points I brought up but you are bringing up new supposed errors in the KJB which are only errors in the eye of the beholder. Again, atheists can point out errors and we may not always have an answer right away. I am also sure I can come up with answers in time to supposed problems in the KJB as I have many times in the past. We simply believe the Bible in what it says. You are doubting the Bible’s teaching on the doctrines of purity and preservation. So what you are doing is no different than what the atheist does. Your position is simply one of unbelief on these doctrines in the Bible.

Folks who are in deep into Textual Criticism have even fallen away from the faith. I can think of two men. Bart Ehrman, and Rick Beckman. Then there are students who fell away from the faith when they went to Bible college. This is no doubt due to Textual Criticism that gets them to doubt their Bible and not trust in it. That really doesn’t happen to my knowledge on some level with KJB believer unless they fall into the wells unbelief of Textual Criticism first. You are also trusted Modern scholarship when they lie and employ deceptions. Granted, you cannot see it because you are in it. But that is what my write up on the 101 Reasons for the KJB will help to show even more. So unless you address the verses I posted to you, this conversation is not going to go anywhere. Have you ever considered the problem passages could be correct and you are reading them wrong? Have you ever sought out KJB apologetic websites on the verse first? No. You just threw down the hammer of judgment against God’s Holy Word.

 

[HealthAndHappiness]

I enjoy the kjv something about that language speaks to me infact I have wished for morgan freemon to be the voice of an audeo bible since reading is very hard for me.

but the ting is when you call it the word of God then if your truly hold it as such then when has his word ever come back in void? his word does not abide to our reality if his thoughts are not our thoughts then why would his word abide otherwise? translation? do we listen to the holy spirit or translation? the language of God or man? the kjbv people who follow that verson only give the power to the translation not the God they follw

Hi Blain,

It's lunch for me and found the audio Bible that I lost in bookmarks a while back.
I read the Bible out loud every day to practice for a recording like this. It's a big goal for me, because I want to be a blessing to many others. Here's an old recording of the most famous audio KJV recording. I've had others, including Darth Vader reading the Bible; Lol, James Earl Jones. It would have been better without the mask and scary breathing though.

Of all, Alexander Scourby is my favorite reader. You'll want to either download or bookmark this. If voices are able to be CR, I think his copyright would have expired by now since he died. The book isn't, unlike the other versions. Many hours of blessings my friend.
☕🙂📖

https://earnestlycontendingforthefaith.com/ListenToTheKingJamesBible.html

 

[presidente]

When you get a chance after the holidays. Watch the video.

God’s Word says His words are in a book (singular) (See: Deuteronomy 17:18, Joshua 1:8, Isaiah 34:16, Jeremiah 30:2, Job 19:23-24, Luke 4:20, Hebrews 10:7). In fact, not only are His words in a book but we are told to seek out this book and read from it (Isaiah 34:16). Furthermore, Isaiah 34:16 is a prophecy of the “End Times.”This prophecy talks about how we would have the Bible (i.e., the Book of the LORD) during the Tribulation period mentioned in Revelation. Seeing we are currently living in the last days and we are drawing closer to the Tribulation period by each passing day, logic dictates that we would be able to hold in our hands the very “Book of the LORD” today

You are aware, aren't you, that when the Bible was actually written, words translated 'book' typically referred to a scroll, right? The codex wasn't widely used at that time. We hear 'book' and we think of a codex bound on the end.

Where does it say anything about holding in the hand? Being able to hold the KJV in the hand, and that being an argument for it being inspired seems to be a KJV-onlyist trope. Where is the scripture that says that if you hold it in yoru hand, that has anything to do with it being inspired?

And what about all those non-English speakers in the world throughout history, even before modern English evolved. They didn't have a KJV in their hand. And it doesn't do much good for people who read only Chinese, Vietnamese, Spanish, etc. to have KJV Bible written in a language that they don't understand, in an old version of the language that most native speakers only partially understand. (Notice how '-eth' is put in the wrong place in ads that try to use Elizabethan English.)

Why would inspiration go off of the actual quotes of the words in the original languages that Moses, Jesus, or the apostles spoke, and then go onto the KJV so that 'there can be only one.' Honestly, I hear arguments for KJV onlyism, the way scriputres are misapplied to support it, and like many others, I think, "that is just dumb.' We don't always say it, but that is what a lot of non-KJV-onlyists think. Why is that the case? Because arguments for KJV-onlyism are just dumb.

Of you want to say this manuscript tradition is better or worse you can make reasonable arguments. But if you want us to believe that what the KJV was translated from was inspired, but now the KJV is THE Bible.... it just doesn't make any sense.

And none of those verses offer any support for KJV onlyism. The Bible is written in Hebrew and Greek with a bit of Aramaic here and there. It's translated into different languages. One of the many translations into English is the KJV, in an out-of-date dialect of the language, if it ever was truly a dialect.

(See again Brandon Peterson’s video here to learn more). In other words, God’s words are not in thousands of manuscript copies of the original languages, but they are in a book, as Scripture says.

Not all of those verses are necessarily talking about the whole Bible... I mean the law of the king passage? But why would you think it refers to a translation of the book instead of the book. Why not just get a bound copy of the Greek and Hebrew scriptures?

As for your theory that a translation becomes 'the book' centuries after the Bible was written, the original 1611 had the Apocrypha in it, too, so you'd better look elsewhere if you think its the 1611 KJV.

 

[presidente]

There is an important piece of information that you must understand when it comes to biblical inspiration. It was the WORDS that were inspired, not the men! God worked through men by His Holy Spirit with the result of the WORDS being inspired. The words are what God breathed life into, not the men. The words of God are living!

16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

So are you ijmplying that the canon was open until 1611, so the translators could have inspiration to translate scripture and write it in english.

Which of the apostles believed this? Where did Jesus teach this?

Where in scripture did the prophets express this belief that their writings would become uninspired and later an English translation of their writings would be inspired, so there can be only one?

 

[presidente]

Soft?

3 And God said, Let there be light: and there was light.

There are some limits to English. Do you think 'light be' is stronger?

So if you take this as a strong command, do you think Deuteronomy 24 commands men to divorce their wives if they find some uncleaness in them and are displeased with them? Do you disagree with Christ in Matthew 19 and Mark 10 and instead agree with the Pharisees?

 

[presidente]

I am also sure I can come up with answers in time to supposed problems in the KJB as I have many times in the past. We simply believe the Bible in what it says. You are doubting the Bible’s teaching on the doctrines of purity and preservation. So what you are doing is no different than what the atheist does. Your position is simply one of unbelief on these doctrines in the Bible.

Your adeherence to the stupid ignorant doctrine of KJV-onlyism combined with your own propensities leads you to accuse others without any basis.

The Bible does not teach anything about preserving doctrine in the KJV. That is just dumb. The Bible was written in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek. When you read the KJV, you are reading a translation of what these texts say.

Folks who are in deep into Textual Criticism have even fallen away from the faith. I can think of two men. Bart Ehrman, and Rick Beckman. Then there are students who fell away from the faith when they went to Bible college. This is no doubt due to Textual Criticism that gets them to doubt their Bible and not trust in it. That really doesn’t happen to my knowledge on some level with KJB believer unless they fall into the wells unbelief of Textual Criticism first. You are also trusted Modern scholarship when they lie and employ deceptions. Granted, you cannot see it because you are in it.

Straw man. I pointed out how the KJV rendered a passage in a way that did not align with the Lord Jesus' interpretation, but rather aligned with that of the Pharisees who were testing him. How is that an issue of 'textual criticsm'?

 

[Niki7]

Interesting fact:

I just found out that some people actually believe that Shakespeare wrote the KJ