Please show me where in the word of God the context of Lust is a good thing? Your definition may be in a secular context but not in a biblical one. the word " Lust occurs 19 times in the KJV. every time is seen, the context is not one of blessing or godly or good.
Prov 6:25 is very much clear on lust as it says :
Lust not after her beauty in thine heart; neither let her take thee with her eyelids.
it says LUST not or do NOT LUST AFTER a woman of beauty.
Jesus said in Matthew 5:28
But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.
That is just two out of the 19, I think Jesus was very clear that WE are not to LUST AFTER. It is His definition that is authoritative in context to the word of God.
First of all, your example of Matthew 5:28 is NOT talking about lust in marriage. It is referring to longing for a woman outside the context of marriage, which is wrong.
Secondly, let’s look at what the Bible says about the word lust. I’ll use Matthew 5:28 as an example. The word “lust” in Matthew 5:28 is the Greek word “ĕpithumĕō” and means “to set the heart upon, i.e long for”.
The same word, ĕpithumĕō, is used in Luke 17:22, Luke 22:15, 1 Timothy 3:1, Hebrews 6:11, and 1 Peter 1:12. The English word in these 5 particular verses is “desire”.
So, for example, when Jesus said in Luke 22:15 “...With desire I have desired to eat this passover with you before I suffer:”
He was saying “With ĕpithumia (longing) I have ĕpithumĕō (set the heart upon) to eat this passover with you...”
Or when Paul said in 1 Timothy 3:1 “This is a true saying, If a man desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work”, the first use of desire is “ŏrĕgŏmai” which means “reach out for” and the second use (desireth) is ĕpithumĕō.
So “lusting” isn’t always a bad thing, according to the scripture. Jesus himself “lusted” aka desired or ĕpithumĕō and it wasn’t sin.
You have to look at the context of the verse and look up the Greek to see how, exactly, the word lust or desire is being used. In the case of Matthew 5:28 it is a bad thing. In the case of Luke 22:15, it is good as it just means “to long for”.
In the context of marriage, it is perfectly normal for me to ĕpithumĕō my husband, and vice versa.
As an aside, in Proverbs 6:25, the Hebrew word lust is châmad and, in this particular instance, means “to delight in”. Châmad also encompasses the English words “covet, goodly, desire, precious…”
So, we are being told to, “...delight (châmad) not after her beauty in thine heart…”
I’m not excusing it. Solomon is still warning against the whoring woman and it is a good warning!
The same “lust” in Proverbs 6:25 (châmad) is used in 2 Chronicles 20:25, when speaking of precious (châmad) jewels. Or in Ezra 8:27 when speaking of the two vessels of fine copper “precious (châmad) as gold”.
Châmad is used in Genesis 27:15, when it speaks of Rebekah taking Esau’s “goodly (châmad) raiment” and putting it on Jacob. The Hebrew to English translation just as easily could have wrote the verse as “lusty raiment”, as it has the same meaning in this context.
Châmad is also used in the Song of Solomon which, we all know, is a book all about love and sex. In chapter 2, verse 3 we read: “As the apple tree among the trees of the wood, so is my beloved among the sons. I sat down under his shadow with great delight (châmad...or, ahem, lust), and his fruit was sweet to my taste.”
Scandalous!