Understanding God’s election

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Rufus

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That was a big one. Feel better?

Except for the eisegete, 1Cor1:30 doesn't negate human volition.

All your silly adjectives and adverbs don't change Scripture re: the atonement or anything else. It's a shame some might think they make you sound smart.
You truly are running on fumes once you criticize people's writing styles. You have nothing of substance to substantiate your falso version of the gospel.

And more evidence that you're on life support is that I never claimed 1Cor 1:30 negated human volition. In fact, I don't deny that we all have a volition -- just like we all have this big spit running down the middle of our butts. :rolleyes: But what I do vehemently deny is that it is the human volition of sinners that ultimately puts any of us in Christ. So...if you're feeling up to it, Mr.Blowhard, why don't you explain to us how Paul could have written what he did, since in your dark universe God's grace is ineffectual and man's volition is effectual -- since God's grace only provides the opportunity for men to be saved whereas a sinner's "freewill" decision is what actually, finally and effectually puts him in Christ -- since the buck doesn't stop with God but stops with man whose "freewill" is the sole determinant of his eternal destiny?
 

GWH

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And another thing that I forgot, Mr. GWH, is that you also said earlier re Rom 9:13 that the text doesn't really mean what it clearly says: Rather it means that God simply preferred Jacob over Esau. Two things are wrong with this statement: A) You obviously did not look up the definition of the Gr. term rendered "hate" nor did you do a word study to show how it's used in the NT. And B), you don't reveal to us why God preferred Jacob over Esau.

Moreover, how do you apply your
personal preferred presupposition of God's preference to a text like Ps 5:5-6? What was God preferring in that passage since there are no comparisons or contrasts being made therein?
No need to define hate because I know the definition of love everyone.
 

studier

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Rufus

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Yes, I interpret the OT in light of the NT which means superseding the Law with the Gospel.

And I believe it is more important not to argue than to be anal about secondary doctrine. HAND
"Secondary doctrine"? This is your out for dismissing passages that don't align with your presuppositions?

It's one thing to interpret the OT in the light of the New (a sound hermeneutical approach), but quite another to relegate the Old as being obsolete or outdated or inferior to the New. Nowhere in scripture did the prophets, the apostles or Christ even remotely hint that the Old was inferior to or replaced by the New. Quite the contrary! Jesus held the OT scriptures in the highest esteem, as did Paul:

2 Tim 3:16
16 All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness,

NIV

Moreover, your insipid presupposition about the superioty of the Gospel in the NT cannot withstand the scrutiny of the NT itself! (Talk about megabytes of irony!) Don't you know that the Gospel in which you supposedly boast is ETERNAl (Rev 14:6) -- as eternal as the New Covenant itself? Was not the Gospel revealed immediately in the post-fall Genesis account? Didn't God save Eve by putting enmity between her and the serpent, thereby implying that He sovereignly reconciled Eve unto himself by removing her enmity toward Him? And He did all this without any indication in Gen 3:15 that Eve repented of her sins (yes...SINS...plural) or has asked God for his forgeiveness ! Eve is the quintessential example of what Paul wrote in Rom 9:14-18. Her salvation clearly did not depend on her volition or on any FW's god Volition!

But it gets even worse for you worshipers of the god Volition: God's grace that he extended to Eve was efficacious! We find a different Eve subsequent to her salvation. We find an Eve with a very different attitude from what she sported prior to God saving her. In fact, we find a humble, transformed Eve, since she acknowledged and credited God twice over for giving her children (Gen 4:1, 25).

It's incumbent upon all of us to not "hide" or be dismissive of passages we don't like but rather to reconcile apparent contradictions. But you have not done that.
 

Rufus

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No need to define hate because I know the definition of love everyone.
I doubt that seriously. And, of course, you don't want to define terms you don't like. What else is new?
 

Rufus

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Yes, your writing has great style.



What is your point about the verse?
I already explained it. And besides, is your attic so filled with cobwebs that you cannot see your way clear to deduce from what I have written today about God's supposed ineffectual grace and your god's effectual Volition? But I can point you to my 10,671 to help you avoid PT's nonsense.
 

studier

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Apr 18, 2024
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I already explained it. And besides, is your attic so filled with cobwebs that you cannot see your way clear to deduce from what I have written today about God's supposed ineffectual grace and your god's effectual Volition? But I can point you to my 10,671 to help you avoid PT's nonsense.
Thanks. Yes, it's very odd that Scripture focusing on God's work speaks of God's work.
 

GWH

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Oct 19, 2024
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"Secondary doctrine"? This is your out for dismissing passages that don't align with your presuppositions?

It's one thing to interpret the OT in the light of the New (a sound hermeneutical approach), but quite another to relegate the Old as being obsolete or outdated or inferior to the New. Nowhere in scripture did the prophets, the apostles or Christ even remotely hint that the Old was inferior to or replaced by the New. Quite the contrary! Jesus held the OT scriptures in the highest esteem, as did Paul:

2 Tim 3:16
16 All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness,

NIV

Moreover, your insipid presupposition about the superioty of the Gospel in the NT cannot withstand the scrutiny of the NT itself! (Talk about megabytes of irony!) Don't you know that the Gospel in which you supposedly boast is ETERNAl (Rev 14:6) -- as eternal as the New Covenant itself? Was not the Gospel revealed immediately in the post-fall Genesis account? Didn't God save Eve by putting enmity between her and the serpent, thereby implying that He sovereignly reconciled Eve unto himself by removing her enmity toward Him? And He did all this without any indication in Gen 3:15 that Eve repented of her sins (yes...SINS...plural) or has asked God for his forgeiveness ! Eve is the quintessential example of what Paul wrote in Rom 9:14-18. Her salvation clearly did not depend on her volition or on any FW's god Volition!

But it gets even worse for you worshipers of the god Volition: God's grace that he extended to Eve was efficacious! We find a different Eve subsequent to her salvation. We find an Eve with a very different attitude from what she sported prior to God saving her. In fact, we find a humble, transformed Eve, since she acknowledged and credited God twice over for giving her children (Gen 4:1, 25).

It's incumbent upon all of us to not "hide" or be dismissive of passages we don't like but rather to reconcile apparent contradictions. But you have not done that.
No, secondary doctrine is the didache or teachings that build on the foundation or essential Gospel kerygma--what Paul lists in 2TM 3:16.

Yes, the NT Gospel was foreshadowed in the OT but not fully revealed until Christ's Spirit taught it to Paul.

Sorry we disagree re TULIP/MFW, so my bet is in lieu of argumentation.
 
So, now we have God the Father, Jesus, the Holy Spirit and Paul saving people. So then by extension, all Christians are mankind's saviors. Or did Paul consider himself a "savior" by virtue of the great privilege God bestowed upon him to preach the divine message of salvation. In the sense that he was a faithful preacher of the gospel of salvation, it could be said that he "saved" people. But certainly not in the sense of this text, of which I'm mindful:

Acts 4:12
12 Salvation is found in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given to men by which we must be saved."

NIV

I'll let you and/or PT critically analyze whose name that could possibly be. Perhaps you guys should modify your understanding of Paul the Savior of men. :rolleyes:
(Sorry for the delay in replying - the site didn't seem to be working yesterday.)

I don't read either Studier's post, or the Apostle Paul, making the unbiblical claim that Paul was a Saviour.
 

GWH

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I doubt that seriously. And, of course, you don't want to define terms you don't like. What else is new?
Apparently the NT, to yew. However, you raise an interesting point: If/since the NT says that God is love (1JN 4:7-21, RM 5:5), who loves even His enemies (per MT 5:44&48) and wants to save everyone (1TM 2:3-4, ACTS 17:26-28), then in what sense/definition does God hate the evil choices of Esau (ML 1:3) and other evil people (HS 9:15)?

In the sense indicated by another divine moral attribute: God is just (2THS 1:6a, cf. RM 3:25-26 & 9:14, DT 32:4, PS 36:6, LK 11:42, RV 15:3). “The Lord is righteous in all his ways, and holy in all his works.” (PS 145:17) Love is defined by divine righteousness or love for good, which means no love or hatred for evil. Even the wrath of God is an expression of His love as discipline (HB 12:4-11). Love and good only exist when there is the possibility of hate and evil.

Thus, God created theoretical evil or the possibility of hating good/God as an option that actualizes human personality or the ability to reflect His love. Because God is loving and just, He does not tempt, trick, confuse or otherwise contribute to anyone’s sinfulness. On the contrary, God must be doing all that He can to influence people such as Esau and Cain not to be deceived and become self-condemned (GN 4:6-7, JM 1:13-17, TIT 3:11, IS 45:19).
 

Rufus

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Strawman Fallacy-A straw man fallacy occurs when someone misrepresents or exaggerates another person's argument and then attacks that distorted version instead of addressing the original point. This tactic is often used in debates to create the illusion of winning an argument without engaging with the actual issues.

I'm not posting a strawman fallacy. And I'm not going to go through every thread and copy a link to those posts that contain the piv that I earlier referred to.
And that's precisely what you have done! The least you could do is go through all the posts in this thread to prove your false claims; otherwise your allegations are vacuous.
 

Rufus

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Apparently the NT, to yew. However, you raise an interesting point: If/since the NT says that God is love (1JN 4:7-21, RM 5:5), who loves even His enemies (per MT 5:44&48) and wants to save everyone (1TM 2:3-4, ACTS 17:26-28), then in what sense/definition does God hate the evil choices of Esau (ML 1:3) and other evil people (HS 9:15)?

In the sense indicated by another divine moral attribute: God is just (2THS 1:6a, cf. RM 3:25-26 & 9:14, DT 32:4, PS 36:6, LK 11:42, RV 15:3). “The Lord is righteous in all his ways, and holy in all his works.” (PS 145:17) Love is defined by divine righteousness or love for good, which means no love or hatred for evil. Even the wrath of God is an expression of His love as discipline (HB 12:4-11). Love and good only exist when there is the possibility of hate and evil.

Thus, God created theoretical evil or the possibility of hating good/God as an option that actualizes human personality or the ability to reflect His love. Because God is loving and just, He does not tempt, trick, confuse or otherwise contribute to anyone’s sinfulness. On the contrary, God must be doing all that He can to influence people such as Esau and Cain not to be deceived and become self-condemned (GN 4:6-7, JM 1:13-17, TIT 3:11, IS 45:19).
Give me chapter and verse on God hating "the evil choices of Esau". Thanks.
 

Rufus

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Yes, I interpret the OT in light of the NT which means superseding the Law with the Gospel.

And I believe it is more important not to argue than to be anal about secondary doctrine. HAND
The Gospel does not supersede the Law! The New Covenant of Grace enables God's people to KEEP the Law! Study the terms of this unilateral covenant some day! Even Jesus said he did not come to abolish the Law but to fulfill it, so that by the precious gift of the Holy Spirit God's covenant people would likewise fulfill it.
 

bluejean_bible

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Feb 15, 2025
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And that's precisely what you have done! The least you could do is go through all the posts in this thread to prove your false claims; otherwise your allegations are vacuous.
No,my observations are due to having read posts here.
 

GWH

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Give me chapter and verse on God hating "the evil choices of Esau". Thanks.
Just did that: God is love (1JN 4:7-21, RM 5:5), who loves even His enemies (per MT 5:44&48) and wants to save everyone (1TM 2:3-4, ACTS 17:26-28).

IOW, God hated the evil choices of Esau.

As a bonus I will give you the chapters and verses on the Gospel superseding the OT/C Law: HB 7:18-10:1.

Re "Jesus said he did not come to abolish the Law but to fulfill it": Exactly, which he did, and in doing so superseded it with the new law (JN 13:34-35) and Gospel of salvation by faith--like Abraham's (RM 4).
 

Rufus

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Since we apparently have so many self-professed experts on God's love, I have three issues to raise to challenge your childish Santa Claus view of God. I would dearly love to hear the reply of all FWs! My challenges consists of three primary passages which deal with
Christ did not pray for all men w/o exception for whom he allegedly died; Christ did not make any post-resurrection appearances to the non-elect; and Christ never knew the non-elect even though it's alleged he loved them all and died for them all. Let's look at each of these briefly in turn.

1. Christ Did Not Pray for the Non-Elect of This World

John 17:9
9 I pray for them. I am not praying for the world, but for those you have given me, for they are yours.

NIV

A rather strange and bizarre attitude coming from one who loves all w/o exception. Why wouldn't Jesus pray for all w/o exception?

2. Christ Hid Himself From the Non-Elect After His Resurrection

John 14:15-24
15 "If you love me, you will obey what I command. 16 And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Counselor to be with you forever— 17 the Spirit of truth. The world cannot accept him, because it neither sees him nor knows him. But you know him, for he lives with you and will be in you. 18 I will not leave you as orphans; I will come to you. 19 Before long, the world will not see me anymore, but you will see me. Because I live, you also will live. 20 On that day you will realize that I am in my Father, and you are in me, and I am in you. 21 Whoever has my commands and obeys them, he is the one who loves me. He who loves me will be loved by my Father, and I too will love him and show myself to him."

22 Then Judas (not Judas Iscariot) said, "But, Lord, why do you intend to show yourself to us and not to the world?"

23 Jesus replied, "If anyone loves me, he will obey my teaching. My Father will love him, and we will come to him and make our home with him. 24 He who does not love me will not obey my teaching. These words you hear are not my own; they belong to the Father who sent me.
NIV

Jesus meticulously avoided revealing himself to the world of non-elect -- to those "of the world". He limited his post-resurrection appearances to only his chosen ones (1Cor 15:3-8), which again is quite strange to say the least if FWT is true! Why wouldn't the "Savior of all men" w/o exception, who doesn't want anyone on the planet to perish, appear to the non-elect? Instead Christ appeared to only those who had saving knowledge of Him. He appeared to those whom He and his Father loved -- to those in whom He and his Father took up their abode! Jesus no more appeared to the ungodly than he and his Father indwelt the non-elect.

3. Christ Never Loved Those Whom He Never Knew

Matt 7:21-23
21 "Not everyone who says to me, 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only he who does the will of my Father who is in heaven. 22 Many will say to me on that day, 'Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and in your name drive out demons and perform many miracles?'
23 Then I will tell them plainly, 'I never knew you. Away from me, you evildoers!'
NIV

This passage is King of Bizarre if FWT is true. The first very odd and "quirky" thing we see in this text is that Jesus didn't condemn these people because they didn't know Him (although this is true)-- but because He never knew them. Really strange when we consider passages like Rom 1:18ff wherein Paul teaches that the unregenerate suppress the truth they knew about God in their unrighteousness; for they did not desire to retain God in their knowledge. Or even from an OT perspective when the prophet told Israel that they should boast in their understanding and knowledge of the Lord (Jer 9:23). But yet...here we are -- straight from the Savior's lips: He will tell the non-elect evildoers on the last day, "I NEVER knew you. Depart from me you evildoers".

On the other hand, Paul reminded the Galatians that while they indeed "know God", he quickly reminded them that they had this saving knowledge because God knew them first (Gal 4:9). In fact, Paul took this idea even further when he stated that "the man who loves God is known by God" (1Cor 8:3). And this teaching harmonizes beautifully with all three of the primary passages quoted herein!

Since the hearts of unregenerate sinners are evil (Mat 7:11; Mik 10:18, etc.) and the mind set on the flesh is hostile towards God and incapable of pleasing God (Rom 8:7-8), we can better understand where Jesus is coming from in Mat 7. When he said, "I never knew you"...he's saying essentially I never had a personal covenant relationship with you. You were total strangers to me! Christianity, after all, is all about God restoring fallen mankind's personal relationship with Himself through the medium of covenants, which also is the Doctrine of Reconciliation (cf. Gen 3:15 for a great example). Since there was never a covenant relationship between Christ and the condemned in Mat 7, this means there was never a covenant of love between Christ and the evildoers. Besides who can love what or who has never been known by them? Is there any command in the bible to love all men w/o exception? Or is the command to love our neighbor predicated on us having some knowledge, some kind of relationship with family, friends or even strangers (cf. Parable of the Good Samaritan) with whom we actually come into personal contact?

So, when Christ said "I never knew you", he's really saying *I* never entered into a personal covenant relationship with evildoers. This is why the emphasis is on who Christ doesn't know since all the covenants are initiated by God and He sovereignly chooses with whom he wants to enter into a personal, covenant relationship (again, Eve being the very first example of this in scripture). Since there is no covenant relationship, no covenant of love with the the unregenerate, non-elect, wicked, then it's not possible that God can love anyone he never knew. God knows intimately and personally, only those who love him! And God loves only those who love Him and His Son and are obedient (Jn 14:21; 16:27; Rom 8:28; Ex 20:6; Deut 7:9-11; Ps 25:10; 37:28; 86:5, etc.). Also a major characteristic of God's love is its eternal nature (Psalm 136). Therefore, Jesus never loved the evildoers in Mat 7. I'll take the clear, plain, explicit statements in scriptrure as to who God loves over all the eisegeis of FWs -- with texts like Jn 3:16, for example.

You FWs might as well believe in tooth fairies and Santa Clauses since you believe that God loves all mankind w/o exception. Jesus most certainly had a very odd way of manifesting his love toward the non-elect. He didn't pray for them, he didn't show himself to them, and he never knew them.
 

Rufus

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Feb 17, 2024
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Just did that: God is love (1JN 4:7-21, RM 5:5), who loves even His enemies (per MT 5:44&48) and wants to save everyone (1TM 2:3-4, ACTS 17:26-28).

IOW, God hated the evil choices of Esau.

As a bonus I will give you the chapters and verses on the Gospel superseding the OT/C Law: HB 7:18-10:1.

Re "Jesus said he did not come to abolish the Law but to fulfill it": Exactly, which he did, and in doing so superseded it with the new law (JN 13:34-35) and Gospel of salvation by faith--like Abraham's (RM 4).
You're delusional. None of your cites teach that God hated the evil choices of Esau. But I have a passage that says quite differently.

Rom 9:10-13
10 Not only that, but Rebekah's children had one and the same father, our father Isaac.
11 Yet, before the twins were born or had done anything good or bad — in order that God's purpose in election might stand: 12 not by works but by him who calls — she was told, "The older will serve the younger." 13 Just as it is written: "Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated."
NIV

In other words in light of what I just posted a little while ago in 10,817: God never knew Esau! God only knows those who love Him!
 

GWH

Groovy
Oct 19, 2024
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Since we apparently have so many self-professed experts on God's love, I have three issues to raise to challenge your childish Santa Claus view of God. I would dearly love to hear the reply of all FWs! My challenges consists of three primary passages which deal with
Christ did not pray for all men w/o exception for whom he allegedly died; Christ did not make any post-resurrection appearances to the non-elect; and Christ never knew the non-elect even though it's alleged he loved them all and died for them all. Let's look at each of these briefly in turn.

1. Christ Did Not Pray for the Non-Elect of This World

John 17:9
9 I pray for them. I am not praying for the world, but for those you have given me, for they are yours.

NIV

A rather strange and bizarre attitude coming from one who loves all w/o exception. Why wouldn't Jesus pray for all w/o exception?

2. Christ Hid Himself From the Non-Elect After His Resurrection

John 14:15-24
15 "If you love me, you will obey what I command. 16 And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Counselor to be with you forever— 17 the Spirit of truth. The world cannot accept him, because it neither sees him nor knows him. But you know him, for he lives with you and will be in you. 18 I will not leave you as orphans; I will come to you. 19 Before long, the world will not see me anymore, but you will see me. Because I live, you also will live. 20 On that day you will realize that I am in my Father, and you are in me, and I am in you. 21 Whoever has my commands and obeys them, he is the one who loves me. He who loves me will be loved by my Father, and I too will love him and show myself to him."

22 Then Judas (not Judas Iscariot) said, "But, Lord, why do you intend to show yourself to us and not to the world?"

23 Jesus replied, "If anyone loves me, he will obey my teaching. My Father will love him, and we will come to him and make our home with him. 24 He who does not love me will not obey my teaching. These words you hear are not my own; they belong to the Father who sent me.
NIV

Jesus meticulously avoided revealing himself to the world of non-elect -- to those "of the world". He limited his post-resurrection appearances to only his chosen ones (1Cor 15:3-8), which again is quite strange to say the least if FWT is true! Why wouldn't the "Savior of all men" w/o exception, who doesn't want anyone on the planet to perish, appear to the non-elect? Instead Christ appeared to only those who had saving knowledge of Him. He appeared to those whom He and his Father loved -- to those in whom He and his Father took up their abode! Jesus no more appeared to the ungodly than he and his Father indwelt the non-elect.

3. Christ Never Loved Those Whom He Never Knew

Matt 7:21-23
21 "Not everyone who says to me, 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only he who does the will of my Father who is in heaven. 22 Many will say to me on that day, 'Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and in your name drive out demons and perform many miracles?'
23 Then I will tell them plainly, 'I never knew you. Away from me, you evildoers!'
NIV

This passage is King of Bizarre if FWT is true. The first very odd and "quirky" thing we see in this text is that Jesus didn't condemn these people because they didn't know Him (although this is true)-- but because He never knew them. Really strange when we consider passages like Rom 1:18ff wherein Paul teaches that the unregenerate suppress the truth they knew about God in their unrighteousness; for they did not desire to retain God in their knowledge. Or even from an OT perspective when the prophet told Israel that they should boast in their understanding and knowledge of the Lord (Jer 9:23). But yet...here we are -- straight from the Savior's lips: He will tell the non-elect evildoers on the last day, "I NEVER knew you. Depart from me you evildoers".

On the other hand, Paul reminded the Galatians that while they indeed "know God", he quickly reminded them that they had this saving knowledge because God knew them first (Gal 4:9). In fact, Paul took this idea even further when he stated that "the man who loves God is known by God" (1Cor 8:3). And this teaching harmonizes beautifully with all three of the primary passages quoted herein!

Since the hearts of unregenerate sinners are evil (Mat 7:11; Mik 10:18, etc.) and the mind set on the flesh is hostile towards God and incapable of pleasing God (Rom 8:7-8), we can better understand where Jesus is coming from in Mat 7. When he said, "I never knew you"...he's saying essentially I never had a personal covenant relationship with you. You were total strangers to me! Christianity, after all, is all about God restoring fallen mankind's personal relationship with Himself through the medium of covenants, which also is the Doctrine of Reconciliation (cf. Gen 3:15 for a great example). Since there was never a covenant relationship between Christ and the condemned in Mat 7, this means there was never a covenant of love between Christ and the evildoers. Besides who can love what or who has never been known by them? Is there any command in the bible to love all men w/o exception? Or is the command to love our neighbor predicated on us having some knowledge, some kind of relationship with family, friends or even strangers (cf. Parable of the Good Samaritan) with whom we actually come into personal contact?

So, when Christ said "I never knew you", he's really saying *I* never entered into a personal covenant relationship with evildoers. This is why the emphasis is on who Christ doesn't know since all the covenants are initiated by God and He sovereignly chooses with whom he wants to enter into a personal, covenant relationship (again, Eve being the very first example of this in scripture). Since there is no covenant relationship, no covenant of love with the the unregenerate, non-elect, wicked, then it's not possible that God can love anyone he never knew. God knows intimately and personally, only those who love him! And God loves only those who love Him and His Son and are obedient (Jn 14:21; 16:27; Rom 8:28; Ex 20:6; Deut 7:9-11; Ps 25:10; 37:28; 86:5, etc.). Also a major characteristic of God's love is its eternal nature (Psalm 136). Therefore, Jesus never loved the evildoers in Mat 7. I'll take the clear, plain, explicit statements in scriptrure as to who God loves over all the eisegeis of FWs -- with texts like Jn 3:16, for example.

You FWs might as well believe in tooth fairies and Santa Clauses since you believe that God loves all mankind w/o exception. Jesus most certainly had a very odd way of manifesting his love toward the non-elect. He didn't pray for them, he didn't show himself to them, and he never knew them.
Re JN 17:9 - You ignore v.20.

Re JN 14:15-24 - Jesus indicated the world in v.23 "Anyone..."

Re MT 7:21-23 - Jesus warned against falsely claiming to have saving faith.