Well...where did all the wanna-be scholars, pseudo-intellectuals, and lovers of those with Piled High and Dry parchments to their name disappear to? I'm still waiting waiting for some FWer to explain how God's eternal decrees in Act 4:27-28 doesn't make Him culpable of sin -- the sin of the murder of his only Son? It appears my tough question is above FWers' pay grade, which is why they cry in their beer so much over my questions. Tsk, tsk, tsk. But...this is predictable because God has chosen the foolish things of this world to shame the wise, the weak things of this world to shame the strong, and He chose the lowly and despised things and things that are not to nullify the things that are, so that no one will boast before Him (1Cor 1:27-29).
Well...if the Acts 4 passage is too tough for you to refute with your false gospel, how 'bout trying Job 1 on for size? Did not God place
all things in the hands of his arch enemy and adversary, save for bringing physical injury to Job himself? And Satan fully made use of the power God granted him, didn't he? The devil destroyed the lives of animals, livestock, servants of Job and his immediate family itself. Therefore, given these irrefutable facts, explain how God's decree to Satan doesn't make Him morally culpable for all the havoc, chaos and destruction of lives that the devil caused by divine permission. How does God's divine prerogative free him from accusation and even condemnation!?
Don't be shy FWers, step up to the batters' box and take your best swings. Or...if you still feel you're not up to such a daunting task, contact your favorite PhD teachers/pastors to come here and answer my questions. Maybe they'll act as your "learned" substitutes.