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God literally tells the prophet, "make" their ears dull. that's a commandment. so unless you think it's Isaiah doing it, um, you are really stretching to get around the fact.

and who first saw Peter when angels released him from prison...

es bedeutet auf Deutsch, "fruit tree"

we should remember how Paul told us, that unless branches had been broken off, Gentiles could not be grafted in. IMO this is part of why Christ rejoiced and thanked the Father that certain things had been hidden from the wise and revealed to babes.

Arnold Fruchtenbaum, maybe. but yes, there was a turning point, and that in itself had a judicial context - evidence had been presented, and a certain population representing the nation had testified of their rejection - hence the prophesied judgement which included a spirit of stupor, and of...

Fruchtenbaum?

as previously discussed, being 'judicial' does not make Isaiah 6 untrue.

there is no need for you to speculate. Jesus told us explicitly why He taught in parables. in order that some might hear but not understand, taking away even what those who have not, have, but simultaneously to add to those who have.

there is no contradiction between God's love and God's hiding knowledge and speaking and performing mystery. there is clear contradiction however with claiming God did not speak in parables in order that some go on hearing and not understanding, seeing and not perceiving. He was not unclear...

any eisegetical interpretation based on what you perceive His character to be, and your personal intuition about what you believe perfect love to be, is necessarily erroneous if it contradicts the facts that these passages you agree are true lay out for us.

perhaps between Paul and myself. but GWH is not engaging in debate. he is transparently running headlong towards a comfirmation-biased conclusion of his own devising, completely unsupported by the things he is submitting as evidence.

compare the following with for example Matthew 6 or His teaching in the synagogues: Matthew 13:34-35 All these things Jesus spoke to the multitude in parables; and without a parable He did not speak to them, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, saying: "I will open My...

it is not always the case that when someone stops talking to you, you have left them speechless

what is the oil? who sells it?

given what we have learned so far, likely not.

then the straightforward conclusion is that by teaching in parables rather than plain speech, God was not trying to open the heart, eyes or ears of those who are not His sheep, just as He said when asked why He stopped teaching in clear language and began speaking in public only in parables...

naturally. but does that make it untrue? there are a couple here who are going to great lengths not to believe it is so.

the point being discussed is whether Isaiah 6:8-11, Matthew 13:10-17, Mark 4:10-12, John 12:37-40, Acts 28:25-28, Romans 11:7-10, Deuteronomy 29:4, Isaiah 29:9-10 and Proverbs 20:12 are true or not.

the text says He intentionally stopped teaching clearly in public and instead spoke only in parables so that it would be fulfilled what He had commanded the prophet long ago, "Keep on hearing, but do not understand; Keep on seeing, but do not perceive. Make the heart of this people dull, And...

statistically likely mom-responses, listed for reference, by case as delineated above: go back and look some more. did you find them all? go back and look some more.