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What does Hebrews 2:17-18 say about the connection between Jesus’ testing and His High Priestly ministry. I agree with the rest of your post, which makes me wonder why you said “um, what?”

There was a definite change in my heart both before (and after) I called on the Name.

Predestination is the engish translation of the Greek word proorizo. God is said to “proorizo” believers four times in scripture…Romans 8:29-30. Ephesians 1:5, Ephesians 1:11 Not everyone who believes in predestination believes in Limited Atonement. That is completely untrue.

If you want to replace tempt with test, I can go along with that. The point I was making was that Jesus “testing” apparently was tied to His Priestly ministry as indicated in the text.

A. Chosen and elect mean the SAME thing. B. Who said God chose some for Hell? Not I. C. Paul was not a hypercalvinist. See Ephesians 1.

Jesus tasted death for every man, but only those who will believe receive the benefits of the atonement. And these were foreknown and chosen (elect) before the foundation of the world. PS- I am not actually a Calvinist if that’s what you’re asking

I agree with this. This post is fully compatible with what I said I’m my previous post. :) Jesus existed with the Father in eternity past, coexistence and coequal. In order to redeem the Elect, He humbled Himself in the incarnation. Having finished His Redemptive work, He was glorified with...

Also, when Jesus said that He “ did not know the day or the hour”, it was not a denial of the perfect Omniscience of the Eternal Logos, but rather He allowed His Divine attributes to be veiled. He also ( as a man) grew in wisdom and knowledge as a child, though in His essence as the Logos he...

I think Hebrews 4:15 indicates that the purpose of Christ’s temptation was related to His ministry as our High Priest.

Correct. God does not tempt man with evil, never. But He is able to permit or restrain evil, ( which comes from man’s sinful heart) according to His Purpose. “ what you intended for evil, God intended for good to save many lives”. Joseph (Genesis 50:20)

PS. I do believe in moral inability of the unregenerate ( cannot please God) . My point was that the unregenerate choose to make immoral choices, but even that is limited, as God restrains and limits if He wishes.

I think our disagreement is semantic. Perhaps we differ in what constitutes a free will. For example, even our most mundane personal choices are limited by things like circumstances, ability, etc, but that doesn’t mean we are not free to choose. Rather it means that we have limited freedom...

I know about open theism. It is not biblical. God called Cyrus by name before Cyrus was born. The Bible teaches that God declares the end from the beginning. Isaiah 46:10

D. God is never the cause of moral evil, but can use evil actions that He did not cause to bring about good that He caused.

A. God can and does restrain evil. Therefore man’s will is not fully autonomous. B. God doesn’t always restrain evil, though He could, therefore there is a measure of human freedom. We have a free will, but God can override our will when and if He chooses. C. God is Soveriegn in that He...

Only if you believe that God’s foreknowledge is always causative…which it is not.

How can our free will exist concurrently with God’s foreknowledge? Do you mean the fact that God transcends time, and that all things past, present and future are present with Him?

The one in Thessalonians 4 where we are caught up to meet th

Those who God foreknew, He predestined, called, justified, and glorified. It is possible to have some type of “conversion”, ( I use the term loosely) but not be of God’s Elect. And it is even possible for an elect to have many conversions (again I am using the term loosely) before they are...