water baptism in Jesus' Name.

Yes, that specific doctrine is just like I have presented.

Yes, my doctrine.

Just like Jesus said His doctrine was His doctrine and Paul said that his doctrine was his doctrine.

Yet both doctrines of both people are entirely biblical.

Jhn 7:16, Jesus answered them, and said, My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me.

2Ti 3:10, But thou hast fully known my doctrine, manner of life, purpose, faith, longsuffering, charity, patience,

Wrong.

According to Acts 2:38-39, baptism in Jesus' Name is the condition to the fulfilling of a promise of remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Ghost.

Actually, I do not.

I preach what I preach on the internet alone.

I consider that my doctrine may in fact work its way around to my brethren at my attended church.

I utilize the same tactic that Paul did. He attempted to reach his own people by preaching to the Gentiles; hoping that the salvation would provoke his brethren to jealousy in order that they might be saved.

I consider that my doctrine may in fact work its way around to my brethren at my attended church.

Yes, one must be a true believer with the Holy Ghost in order for the promise to apply.



It appears that you are now falsely accusing me of being on the side of the false accuser.

All you had to say was that it doesn't irk you if someone is saved through baptism in Jesus' Name; and I would have taken your word for it.

But as it is, you are evading the question.

And it was a question, not a statement.

And therefore, not an accusation.

I would encourage the reader to receive baptism in Jesus' Name even if you only have certain doubts about whether or not you are saved at times.

Receiving the ordinance will remove all doubt.

Of this I will only say that the Father is a Spirit (John 4:23-24) and there is one Spirit (Ephesians 4:4).

Therefore, the Father and the Holy Ghost are the same Spirit.

One, the preincarnate Christ; and the other, the same Spirit released into eternity at the death of Jesus.

Yes, belief without corresponding action is dead.

Just want to remind everyone of something that was spoken of earlier...

That in Acts 2:37-41, before they were actually baptized and after they repented, Peter told them to "be saved from this untoward generation".

Therefore, they were not saved before they were baptized; even if they did have faith and it was a believer's baptism.

Yes, belief without corresponding action is dead.

According to 1 Peter 3:20-21 baptism is the antitype that now saves us. An antitype is not a type. It is the real thing. And, yes, without Jesus' sacrifice baptism would be meaningless.

Their "belief" at this point was "mental assent" that Jesus was the Messiah and they were guilty of crucifying Him. That is not saving belief yet. Nothing is mentioned here about them trusting in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ for salvation, which explains why they still needed to repent and believe the gospel in that order.

In Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.

*Also compare the fact that these Gentiles in Acts 10:45 received the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with Acts 2:38 - the gift of the Holy Spirit) and this was BEFORE water baptism. (Acts 10:47)

In Acts 10:43 we read ..whoever believes in Him receives remission of sins. Again, these Gentiles received the gift of the Holy Spirit - Acts 10:45 - when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ - Acts 11:17 - (compare with Acts 16:31 - Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved) BEFORE water baptism - Acts 10:47. This is referred to as repentance unto life - Acts 11:18.

*So the only logical conclusion when properly harmonizing scripture with scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31; 26:18). *Perfect Harmony*


Those who gladly received his word (upon repentance/faith) were "afterwards" baptized. So they were added to the Lord upon repentance/faith prior to receiving water baptism, just as we see in Acts 10:43;47.

Acts 4:4 - However, many of those who heard the word believed; and the number of the men came to be about five thousand. *What happened to baptism?

Acts 5:14 - And believers were increasingly added to the Lord, multitudes of both men and women. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.

For the same reason the Gentiles did in Acts 10:43-47.

here is a not Christ like post the implication is totally out of line

Hnasdl


You mean like saying, Sick em God?

kind of like half of David's, Psalms, he wrote

Isn't that what we say to dogs?

you put this dude on the same level as David? really

There is not a single Reason, God, Himself, gained from His Own physical Death and Burial. We know why He did it for us, we are the ones who gain from His Death, Burial, and especially His Resurrection. Water Baptism, is merely a Symbol of God's DBR. There are No Quality Advantages between a person living for God who is Baptized and who is not. A SYMBOL of a Representation, like what Water Baptism is, [[is not]] going to do anything for me at all Spiritually. It just keeps the idiots, who preach, Water Baptism, happy

Let's see. A generation is 20 - 30 years. So it seems, if we want to disassemble the actual truth of scripture as you do, we are safe from that untoward generation as they are all dead.

No worries! We're good.

I can't say what should be said here, so I make light of this instead.