I am not implying that every regeneration ends with Speaking in Tongues. But Paul said anyone can have the Gift so it makes perfect sense why it does happen but many times during Salvation.
Acts 2:38 Comparison: Evangelical vs. Oneness / Baptismal-Regeneration View
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Some help for the uninformed:
Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words: NAME [ A-1,Noun,G3686, onoma ]
(II) for all that a "name" implies, of authority, character, rank, majesty, power, excellence, etc., of everything that the "name" covers:
(a) of the "Name" of God as expressing His attributes, etc., e.g., Matthew 6:9; Luke 1:49; John 12:28; John 17:6, John 17:26; Romans 15:9; 1 Timothy 6:1; Hebrews 13:15; Revelation 13:6;
(b) of the "Name" of Christ, e.g., Matthew 10:22; Matthew 19:29; John 1:12; John 2:23; John 3:18; Acts 26:9; Romans 1:5; James 2:7; 1 John 3:23; 3 John 1:7; Revelation 2:13; Revelation 3:8; also the phrases rendered "in the name;" these may be analyzed as follows:
(1) representing the authority of Christ, e.g., Matthew 18:5 (with epi, "on the ground of My authority"); so Matthew 24:5 (falsely) and parallel passages; as substantiated by the Father, John 14:26; John 16:23 (last clause), RV;
(2) in the power of (with en, "in"), e.g., Mark 16:17; Luke 10:17; Acts 3:6; Acts 4:10; Acts 16:18; James 5:14;
(3) in acknowledgement or confession of, e.g., Acts 4:12; Acts 8:16; Acts 9:27-Acts 9:28;
(4) in recognition of the authority of (sometimes combined with the thought of relying or resting on), Matthew 18:20; cp. Matthew 28:19; Acts 8:16; Acts 9:2 (eis, "into"); John 14:13; John 15:16; Ephesians 5:20; Colossians 3:17;
(5) owing to the fact that one is called by Christ's "Name" or is identified with Him, e.g. 1 Peter 4:14 (with en, "in"); with heneken, "for the sake of," e.g., Matthew 19:29; with dia, "on account of," Matthew 10:22; Matthew 24:9; Mark 13:13; Luke 21:17; John 15:21; 1 John 2:12; Revelation 2:3
(MY NOTE: In the name of invokes: authority, power, representation, commission, on behalf of. The definition never infers "Say These Exact Words"!
Examples: Stop in the name of the law doesn’t mean: "The cop has to say those exact words" & "I come in my father’s name" doesn’t mean to "literally say his name out loud."
"In the name of Jesus" = by His authority, not a spoken formula
Jesus Himself declares His total authority:
Matt 28:18 Jesus said; All authority in heaven & on earth has been given to Me.
This is the foundation. If He has all authority, then "acting in His name" means acting under that authority.
Phil 2:9–10 God gave Him "the name above every name". - This is not about syllables, it’s about authority, status, rank, dominion.
Lk 10:17 Even the demons are subject to us in Your name. - They weren't invoking a formula. They were operating under His authority.
Acts 3:16 "His name, "by faith in His name" has made this man strong." - Peter explicitly says the power came from Jesus’ authority, not from reciting an exact phrase.
Eph 1:20–22 Christ is seated "far above all rule and authority and power & dominion. - A cosmic declaration of Jesus authority.
Jn 5:27 The Father "gave Him authority to execute judgment."
Jn 10:18 "I have authority to lay down My life" & "the authority to take it up again."
Col 3:17 “Whatever you do, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus." - If say these exact words (in the name of Jesus) is taken literally. Then every meal, prayer & conversation would require this spoken formula.
Scripture repeatedly teaches that Jesus’ name refers to His authority, not a spoken formula. Acting "in His name" meant acting under His divine authority. Exactly how the apostles healed, cast out demons, preached & baptized.
Acts 2:38 Be baptized "in the name of Jesus Christ" = Identify with Jesus as Messiah, not John the Baptist or Judaism. This is about allegiance & authority, not a verbal formula. If it were a formula, it would contradict Jesus’ own command in Matthew 28:19.
Acts 3:6 In the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, rise up and walk. - Peter invokes Jesus’ "authority" not a magic phrase. Proof: Peter later explains the healing came by faith in His name (Acts 3:16), not by reciting exact syllables.
Acts 4:7 "By what power or by what name have you done this"- The Sanhedrin is asking: "Under whose authority did you do this". They are not asking, What exact words did you say?
Acts 4:10 By the name of Jesus Christ, this man stands before you whole. - Again, authority, not formula. Peter is explaining the source of power, not the words he spoke.
Acts 8:12 They were baptized, "in the name of Jesus Christ" - They were baptized into allegiance to Jesus, not Simon the sorcerer or Judaism or Rome etc. This is identity, not incantation.
Acts 9:27 He preached boldly in the name of Jesus. - Paul preached under Jesus’ authority. He did not walk around saying "in the name of Jesus" before every sentence.
Acts 10:48 He commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. - Baptized into the Lord’s authority, not a spoken formula.
Acts 15:14 God visited the Gentiles to take out a people for His name. - A people belonging to His authority, His identity.
Acts 16:18 I command you in the name of Jesus Christ to come out. - Paul invokes Jesus’ authority over demons. Proof this is not a formula: The seven sons of Sceva said the name but had no authority & the demon beat them bloody.
In the name of Jesus” in Acts 2:38. = Be baptized under the authority of Jesus the Messiah. not John, not Judaism, not Rome. It’s allegiance, not incantation.
This is what the apostles always did in Acts:
healing in His name ============ by His authority
casting out demons in His name = by His authority
preaching in His name ========== under His authority
suffering for His name ========== allegiance to His authority
baptizing in His name ========== identifying with His authority
Peter didn’t replace Jesus’ baptismal wording. He explained its authority. Jesus gave the words in Matthew 28:19. Acts gives the meaning of those words. In the name of Jesus is not a formula to recite. It’s cites the authority behind the act. If he gave a formula, it would contradict Jesus’ own command in Matthew 28:19.
Matthew 28:19---------------------------------------------------------Acts 2:38
Post‑resurrection------------------------------------------------------Post‑resurrection
Jesus speaking---------------------------------------------------------Peter preaching
Baptize them in the name of the Father, Son, Holy Spirit ----Be baptized in the name of Jesus
*****Universal command for all nations******---------------------*****Specific call to repentant Jews*****
No conflict with Acts-------------------------------------------------No conflict with Matthew
Not sure why this is the response towards Speaking in Tongues but I did enjoy the read.
I'm sorry I troubled you with my questions.
I was just trying to get you to think and look in HIS word for the answers.
Matthew, Mark, Luke and John JESUS was with us.
Acts the building of the church, the foundation on how to be reborn.
All books after that were to those who have been saved you WILL NOT find on place in them on how to be reborn.
Please consider what JESUS HIMSELF said in John 3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
CAN'T ENTER WITHOUT BOTH.
Best of luck.
The name Jesus is not a magical formula; the sound waves reverberating from the spoken name do not remit sin or bring other special powers. However, when we call the name Jesus in faith, Jesus responds. The name represents His presence and work. We must have personal faith in Jesus for the name to have any meaning and for anything to happen (Acts 3:16; 10:43).
That the name of Jesus cannot be taken as a magical incantation does not detract from the need to invoke the name orally. Peter prayed for the lame man by saying, “In the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth rise up and walk” (Acts 3:6). When the man walked, Peter explained, “And his name through faith in his name hath made this man strong” (Acts 3:16). It takes the name of Jesus called in faith. We cannot separate inner faith from obedience to God’s Word. At baptism, when we invoke the name Jesus in faith as His Word commands, He comes and remits our sins.
Biblical reasons for baptism in the name of Jesus.
Every class of believers was baptized in Jesus' name.
(1) The Bible gives this formula and no other.
(a) Matthew 28:19 describes this formula. (in the name...)
(b) The apostolic church adhered to this formula
(Acts 2:38; 8:16; 10:48; 19:5; 22:16; I Corinthians 1:13).
(2) Baptism is a burial with Christ and no one else
(Romans 6:4; Colossians 2:12).
(3) Baptism is a personal identification with Christ
(Romans 6:3; Galatians 3:27), and His name identifies us
as His possession.
(4) At baptism we take on our new family name, as
part of our new birth, adoption, and spiritual circumcision.
The name God’s spiritual family bears is Jesus (Ephesians 3:14-15).
(5) Baptism is for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38),
and Jesus is the only name that remits sin (Acts 10:43).
(6) The name of Jesus represents all the power and
authority of God (Matthew 28:18; Acts 4:7, 10). When we
invoke His name in faith, that power and authority
become available to us (Acts 3:6, 16).
(7) Everything we do in word or deed should be
done in the name of Jesus (Colossians 3:17), and baptism
is both word and deed.
(8) The name of Jesus is the highest name known to
man, and everyone must bow to that name (Philippians
2:9-11).
(9) Baptism is part of our salvation, and Jesus is the
only saving name (Acts 4:12).
(10) Baptism in Jesus’ name manifests complete
faith in Jesus as our only Savior and our only access to
God (John 14:6-11).
(11) It signifies belief that the fulness of the
Godhead is manifested in Jesus (Colossians 2:9).
(12) Jesus is the name by which God has revealed
Himself in the New Testament (Matthew 1:21; John 5:43;
14:26).
(13) Baptism in the name of Jesus demonstrates reverence
for and obedience to the Word of God over and above
human tradition.
In view of all the important things baptism in Jesus’ name signifies, why would anyone refuse to use the name? Why would anyone hesitate to take on the name of the One who died for them and be identified publicly with Him? Why would anyone reject the only saving name—the name that is above every name?" D. Bernard
No surprise, I disagree. More importantly scripture disagrees with you.
My reply to you in post #1839 explained Jn 3 in detail. Jesus is not teaching on water baptism. He's distinguishing TWO births.
The key is Verse 6: That which is """BORN of the FLESH is FLESH""" & that which is BORN of the SPIRIT is SPIRIT.
Every book Paul wrote traches how to be reborn. Find a sm taste here:
Rom 5:
1 Therefore being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ:
2 By whom also we have access by faith into this grace wherein we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God.
(NOTE: We're JUSTIFIED by FAITH & We Access GRACE by FAITH.
2 Timothy 1:9 Who hath saved us, & called us with an holy calling, not according to our works but according to his own
purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began,
(NOTE: SAVED by GRACE GIVEN to us thru FAITH in CHRIST)
Eph 2:8 By grace are ye saved thru faith; that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God
(NOTE: by GRACE are you SAVED thru FAITH)
9 Not of works, lest any man should boast
(NOTE: No rituals allowed)
Jn 3:
16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.
18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
(NOTE: Belief/FAITH in the NAME/AUTHORITY of Jesus the Christ. Nothing else needed!)
BTW, GRACE has a NAME!
Titus 2:11 For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men
(NOTE: That NAME is JESUS the CHRIST)
I'm not debating with you, how can one debate when questons are asked and the other person don't reply?
I ask you simple questions which you think you answer them but you don't we can not get any where.
Some simple questions,
Are we born in sin,
If so how do we get rid of them.
Can you tell me how to be reborn?
If you notice those verse you share after the book of Acts which you rely on your enteratnl destiny DO NOT answer those questions.
You can say, we are saved by faith and by grace all you want that does not make it so.
Just read those scripture???? And we are reborn?????
Makes no sence to me.
Best of luck.
Of course you can ask me ANY question to disprove the book of Acts and I will reply to those questions.
I agree you're not debating you're promoting your sects salvation requirement ritual's.
2ndly, You never answer any questions I ask you, SO...
Acts 2 Pentecost: Luke is describing a VISIBLE manifestation,
Luke's "CLOVEN TONGUES like as of FIRE". Greek definition:
tongues=========== glōssai > shapes, flickers, flame‑like forms
cloven============ diamerizomenai > divided, distributed, separated
LIKE as of FIRE===== hōsei pyros > resembling FIRE, FIRE‑like, not actual FIRE
Visible, Bright, flame‑like forms, flickering shapes, manifestations. Divided & appearing above each believer, resembling fire but not burning.
Was this you exact experience you had, when you burst out speaking in tongues?
After all you insist/require an exact spoken (in Jesus name) & experience (speaking in tongues) ritual to be saved.
Why "fire"? It's a classic OT biblical symbol of God’s presence.
To Mosaic law adherents (Acts 2 Pentecost is full of them, way more them 3000)
God descending on Sinai
the burning bush
the pillar of fire
the glory of God filling the tabernacle
Elijah’s fire on the altar
Fire = God’s manifest presence. Heb 12:29 & Deut 4:24
BTW, you never answered this question.
Did everyone within your voices reach understand what your were saying in their native language, when you were speaking in tongues, like they did Acts 2:8 & 12? Did you understand what you were saying?
Brother, I appreciate the discussion. I want to stay strictly with what the text explicitly says, not what we infer from silence.
In Acts 10, the Holy Ghost fell while Peter was still speaking—before any water baptism or command:
“While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word.” (Acts 10:44 KJV)
The Spirit does not indwell unforgiven sinners (John 14:17 KJV). That means forgiveness had already occurred. Otherwise, God Himself would be contradicting His own holiness.
Peter’s own interpretation in Acts 11 confirms this. He does not say God forgave them when they were baptized, but:
“God gave them the like gift as he did unto us, who believed on the Lord Jesus Christ.” (Acts 11:17 KJV)
“Then hath God also to the Gentiles granted repentance unto life.” (Acts 11:18 KJV)
Repentance unto life is granted by God, not dispensed by ritual.
Peter’s question—“Can any man forbid water?”—does not mean “withhold forgiveness.” It means baptism could not be refused because God had already accepted them. Water followed salvation; it did not produce it.
Acts 2:38 occurs in a unique Jewish, covenant-transition context and cannot override Acts 10, Acts 11, Acts 15, or Paul’s clear teaching that justification is by faith apart from works (Rom. 5:1 KJV; Eph. 1:13 KJV).
“To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.” (Acts 10:43 KJV)
That verse stands exactly where God placed it—before the Spirit fell and before water baptism.
Grace and peace.
I'm not promoting ANYTHING I am sharing HIS WORD which is not any ritual.
Sad, a person who LOVES to give bible studies but but can't tell me what I have to do to be saved.
I didn't see the questions in earlier post?
If I answer your questions will you answer mine??????
Do you have an open mind???????
First I was not there so I only have HIS word to figure out the answer.
I do understand the FACT that they HEARD in their own language.
1 Corinthians 14:2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.
Acts 2:4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.
OTHER FACTS, if you notice in Acts 2:4 it does NOT say they were speaking in other languages BUT as the spirit gave them utterance.
If you look at 1 Cor 12 it says NO MAN UNDERSTANDS.
So as Paul says later in 1 Cor one of the gifts of the spirit is interpreting what is said in tongues.
So I have no idea how they could have heard in their own language since GOD it the same yesterday, today and tomorrow UNLESS it was GOD himself that made them hear in their own language.
Do you think GOD could do that? I sure do.
BUT THE FACT REMAINS they were NOT speaking in their personal languages.
So to answer the second part of you question, NO since I have never spoken in tongues in a church setting.
My personal experience when JESUS filled me, I was sweating, eyes running, nose running and left me saying to myself, WHAT WAS THAT. It changed my life JESUS IS ALIVE.
Which make me think of in Acts 2:4 what were they thinking when JESUS filled them.
Did I answers your questions?
If so you can now answer mine.
LOL, so your saying that in Acts 10 they didn't need to be baptized at all, why were they COMMANDED to be?
Your claiming we can be reborn without NEVER getting rid of our sins how is that possible?
You CLAIM the spirit doens't indwell in a unforgiven sinnes can you back that up with scripture John 14:17 sure isn't evidenc of that.
Did you want to try another one?
MAYBE JUST MAYBE no way would have Peter baptized them unless JESUS need to send Peter a message and filled them, which assure the gentiles were to be grafted in???
Peter knows that both are required to be save, JESUS said it also why don't you?
No you didn't answer my questions. You did change & twist the word as written.
The word as recorded in our discussion is Acts 2. NOT 1 Cor 14 a completely & unrelated message.
ACTS 2:
8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?
9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,
10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes,
11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.
12 And they were all amazed, and were in doubt, saying one to another, What meaneth this?
(NOTE: EVERY MAN THERE ""15 STATED NATIONS"" ""HEARD THESE TONGUES IN THEIR OWN LANGUAGE"")
1 Cor 14
The chapter context isn't tongues being a sign/requitement of salvation (as you claim). It's about spiritual gifts, edification & order in an already established assembly of BELIEVERS!
The chapter ranks prophecy as superior to tongues (1–5) Nothing is mort important then one' eternal life dwelling. Your 1st important salvation requirement is speaking in tongues & Paul NEVER teaches that in any epistle!
Rules for this tongues gift (vs. 26–40) Paul gives strict guidelines: Only 2–3 may speak during an assembly meeting. This doesn't add up at Pentecost, 3000 saved! You can't broad brush/force this chapter in your Acts 2 tongues = salvation narrative.
Uninterpreted tongues are useless for the Church (vs. 6–19)
The chapter teaches in assembly 2-3 & only with an interpreter present. This = prophecy whereby the WHOLE assembly (of BELIEVERS) is edified.
There is a personal prayer aspect to this gift as well. Here the individual doesn't understand but the Holy Spirit-in-them does & their personal prayer edifies them.
Paul states he speaks in this prayer tongue/language more then them all. Not that he gets saved more then them all or every time he prays.
Like all the gifts mentioned in this chapter their accessed via FAITH. You have not, because you ask not - ask & you'll receive.
2ndly I asked if your tongues experience came with a VISUAL MANIFASTION. like the 120 did at Pentecost, cloven tongues, loud rushing wind, flashing lights. Well, was God’s manifest presence visual?
You're reply says neither you or anyone else (I.E. your forcing 1 Cor 14 into Acts 2) understood what you were saying. That's NOT the Acts 2 recorded formula!
1 Cor 14 isn't a tongue promoting chapter. It's a tongues regulation chapter.
1 Cor chapter 14 is about order, clarity, edification & a variety of spiritual gifts received thru faith & not a formula for salvation.
I must not have explained it very well.
How can one person explain HIS word unless you use other parts of it.
Isaiah 28:10 For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little:
If JESUS is the same, yesterday, today and tommorow then HE does not change HIS rules.
If you notice they were not speaking in anyone's earthy language.
Acts 2:4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.
Notice it does not say earthy language's?
1 Corinthians 14:2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.
Since no man can understand how did they hear in their own language?
Wow! I guess I better sacrifice a sheep, because the Lord (yesterday, today and tomorrow does not change HIS rules. Good grief...
Myles Coverdale; a Bible theologian/translator from the 1500’s. He wrote the Coverdale Bible. Say's don't judge Scripture by what is spoken, or written only.
When dissecting any verse of scripture. Ask yourself, of whom, to whom, with what words, what time, where, to what intent, with what circumstances, considering what is written before and what follows any single verse context.
Our Discussion Acts 2
of whom, to whom, with what words, what time, where, to what intent, with what circumstances, = Jews on the Temple Mt during a mandatory attendance Pentecost Feast.
Circumstances a prophecy (Vs16/Joel) fulfillment.
Written by Luke
Key verse of discussion (4) And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.
Vs before:
2 And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting.
3 And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them.
(NOTE: A LOUD rushing mighty wind, cloven tongues like as of fire appeared/THEY SEE IMAGES (explained last reply) & the VISABLE cloven tongues sat upon each of them. Your answer to my question. Did you SEE THESE SAME IMAGES. NO!
Verses after
8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?
9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,
10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes,
11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.
12 And they were all amazed, and were in doubt, saying one to another, What meaneth this?
(NOTE: Jews from 15 nations that HEARD them speaking in tongues, HEARD them in there own language. You keep saying your citing scripture & YOUR NOT! & No one understood you including yourself!
Again you try to force 1 Cor 14 into the Acts 2 story. It doesn't fit/or belong.
1 Cor 14 is written to an assembly of ALREADY SAVED BELIEVERS (See 1 Cor 1:2)
Not to mention 1 Cor 14:28 sinks your whole: """YOU MUST SPEAK IN TONGUES TO BE SAVED"""
28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
(NOTE: If no one is there to interpret SHUT-UP! This action can be turned on & off. SALVATION ISN'T THE CHAPTER 14 SUBJECT.
Paul' audience is ALREADY SAVED - Luke' WASN'T!
And now you conjure up Isa 10? Isaiah 28:10 is the mocking voice of rebellious leaders who ridicule Isaiah’s simple, repetitive teaching & because they reject it. God sends judgment through foreign invaders.
Does this sound like the eternal life giving Holy Spirit?
You preach/force Acts 2 & the Pentecost tongues speaking event as the only path to salvation.
Yet, the event you described happing to you: "QUOTE: My personal experience when JESUS filled me, I was sweating, eyes running, nose running and left me saying to myself, WHAT WAS THAT."""
Sorry, this explanation DOESN'T line up with the God breathed word written in Acts.
No reason for me to share HIS word, I sure did try.
Since you know everything, any chance you can answer mine now?
Are we born in sin?
Will sin enter Heaven?
If not and we need to get rid of them, how do we get rid sins?
Not very hard questions.
Where is the love?
After we are reborn aren't we supposed to work for JESUS and try to share HIS word so others can be saved.
Why not just say you don't have a clue how to be saved.
Brother, no—Acts 10 does not say baptism is unnecessary. It shows order, not redundancy.
Peter commanded baptism because God had already given unmistakable proof they were accepted. The command did not cause forgiveness; it acknowledged it.
The text is explicit:
“While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word.” (Acts 10:44 KJV)
Peter’s conclusion is not “they were forgiven when baptized” but:“God gave them the like gift as he did unto us, who believed.” (Acts 11:17 KJV)
And the church’s response:
“Then hath God also to the Gentiles granted repentance unto life.” (Acts 11:18 KJV)
As for the Spirit and forgiveness—Scripture is clear that the Spirit is given upon believing, not upon ritual:
“After that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise.” (Eph. 1:13 KJV)
“Because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts.” (Gal. 4:6KJV)
Peter baptized them because obedience follows salvation, just as confession follows faith (Rom. 10:10 KJV).
That does not make baptism the means of remission—Acts 10:43 KJV already states when remission is received:
“Whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.”
Acts 10 isn’t God changing the rules. It’s God proving—beyond dispute—that Gentiles are saved the same way Jews are: by faith, then obedience.
Grace and peace.
“…even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive…”
(John 14:17 KJV)
When Jesus speaks of “the world” in John’s Gospel, He is not talking about humanity in general, but humanity in unbelief—the unregenerate.(John 14:17 KJV)
John uses world (κόσμος) consistently this way:
- John 1:10–12 KJV — the world did not know Him, but those who received Him were given power to become sons of God
- John 7:7 — “the world cannot hate you; but me it hateth”
- John 15:18–19 — the world hates believers because they are no longer of the world
- John 17:14 — believers are “not of the world, even as I am not of the world”
Unbelievers cannot receive the Spirit.
Believers will receive and know Him.
That fits the rest of the New Testament without strain:
“After that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise.”
(Ephesians 1:13 KJV)
(Ephesians 1:13 KJV)
“Because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts.”
(Galatians 4:6 KJV)
The Spirit is not given to make someone forgiven; He is given because they already belong to Christ.(Galatians 4:6 KJV)
That’s why Acts 10 is so decisive. The Gentiles received the Holy Ghost upon believing, which showed they were no longer “of the world” — even before water baptism.
John 14:17 doesn’t stand alone. It sets a boundary the rest of Scripture never crosses.
Grace and peace.