77 Changed Doctrines in Modern Bibles

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I sometimes, on rare occasions, will look at Modern Bibles (Modern Critical Text Bibles which are corrupt) on BibleHub to help clarify uncommon words in the KJV when the wording happens to match. However, I will not use the NKJV for this purpose. Why? The NKJV has three major problems, which is why I do not even use it to help explain archaic words in the KJV.

#1. While the NKJV is primarily based on the Textus Receptus, it does not always follow it. For example, in 1 John 3:16, the phrase “of God” is removed, and in this case, the NKJV follows the Critical Text instead. Many are deceived into thinking the NKJV is a true TR Bible that follows the same Textus Receptus as the KJV, but this is not always the case. It is not a genuine modernized KJV update as it claims to be. In fact, none of its translators were friendly toward the Textus Receptus. So when the cover says “King James” after the word “New,” it is misleading. The NKJV is a hybrid TR and should have been called something else because it does not consistently follow the TR.

#2. The NKJV updates certain words to align with Modern Bibles like the NIV, ESV, and CSB, all of which are based on the Critical Text. This means it makes translation choices in English that mirror these Critical Text versions rather than the KJV. 2 Timothy 2:15 is one clear example of this, changing “Study” to “Be diligent,” which weakens the emphasis on personal study and turns it into a vague encouragement toward general effort.

#3. The NKJV includes footnotes marked “NU” (Nestle Aland and United Bible Societies) to nudge readers toward the Critical Text, and “M” to reference the so-called Majority Text. Yet this “Majority Text” is not truly representative of the full Byzantine majority of manuscripts we have today. Printed Majority Text editions today are based on roughly 300 to 600 Greek manuscripts, not the 5,800 manuscripts that make up the real Byzantine Majority.

Note: I believe the KJV is the perfect words of God in 1600s English, but that does not mean I will not use Modern English Bibles on rare occasion if it helps flesh out the uncommon words in the KJV. But many are not capable of doing this because this. Why? Because there is the danger of following the Modern Bibles when they are making a completely different change to what the KJV says. I see the Modern Bibles sort of like a dictionary. Sometimes the word fits, and other times it does not. But I do look at the context, pray, look at the original language words, look at what other believers think through history, etcetera.


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My Holman kjv study bible does have commentary and center line reference to other similar passages.

The last KJV I bought (which was in 2023) was a Holman Pure Cambridge Super Giant Sized Print edition at Amazon.

https://www.amazon.com/dp/1535954582

Note: Personally, I believe the Pure Cambridge (circa 1900) is the final settled form of the KJV and is the perfect Word in English for today.
The 1 John 5:8 "spirit" reading is superior to the "Spirit" reading in other KJV editions because one could misunderstand this to refer to the Holy Spirit, when I believe this is talking about man's spirit.
1 John 5:7 is the witness of God in Heaven.
1 John 5:8 is the witness of man on Earth.
1 John 5:9 circles back to the point in 1 John 5:7 saying that the witness of God is greater.
The capitalized "Spirit" reading in other KJV editions is not a contradiction with the Pure Cambridge because there was no standardization in spelling yet and or others preferred the older "Spirit" reading like the Concorde edition in the 1950s.
Before standardization, words could be capitalized for emphasis.

Granted, I do give great weight to the Beza 1598 Greek and the Ben Chayyim Masoretic Hebrew, too (Which underlies the KJV).
By 1638, we can see the lowercase "spirit" appeared (spelled with lowercase "f" instead of an "s").



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By 1638, we can see the lowercase "spirit" appeared (spelled with lowercase "f" instead of an "s").
FYI the “lower case ‘f’” is actually an ‘s’. If you look closely you will probably see there is no ‘crossbeam’ on it. This change in font is one of many reasons why the 1611 is far more challenging to read.
 
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FYI the “lower case ‘f’” is actually an ‘s’.

Yes. That's what I meant. The lowercase "f" is actually an "s" that is lowercase in 1 John 5:8.
I believe contextually, this is the best fit if one believes 1 John 5:7 is a part of their Bible.
The witness of God being greater in 1 John 5:9 is summing up the contrast between the witness of God in Heaven (verse 7) with the witness of man on the earth (verse 8). Even in Greek, one of the top leading Greek experts in the world today says there is a grammar error in the text if the Comma is not there. I provide some other good additional evidence for the Comma in my PDF (if you are interested). The videos are really informative. Plus, also check out the academic research paper by Mike Fernando.


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The last KJV I bought (which was in 2023) was a Holman Pure Cambridge Super Giant Sized Print edition at Amazon.

https://www.amazon.com/dp/1535954582

Note: Personally, I believe the Pure Cambridge (circa 1900) is the final settled form of the KJV and is the perfect Word in English for today.
The 1 John 5:8 "spirit" reading is superior to the "Spirit" reading in other KJV editions because one could misunderstand this to refer to the Holy Spirit, when I believe this is talking about man's spirit.
1 John 5:7 is the witness of God in Heaven.
1 John 5:8 is the witness of man on Earth.
1 John 5:9 circles back to the point in 1 John 5:7 saying that the witness of God is greater.
The capitalized "Spirit" reading in other KJV editions is not a contradiction with the Pure Cambridge because there was no standardization in spelling yet and or others preferred the older "Spirit" reading like the Concorde edition in the 1950s.
Before standardization, words could be capitalized for emphasis.

Granted, I do give great weight to the Beza 1598 Greek and the Ben Chayyim Masoretic Hebrew, too (Which underlies the KJV).
By 1638, we can see the lowercase "spirit" appeared (spelled with lowercase "f" instead of an "s").



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I have this one and also a large
The last KJV I bought (which was in 2023) was a Holman Pure Cambridge Super Giant Sized Print edition at Amazon.

https://www.amazon.com/dp/1535954582

Note: Personally, I believe the Pure Cambridge (circa 1900) is the final settled form of the KJV and is the perfect Word in English for today.
The 1 John 5:8 "spirit" reading is superior to the "Spirit" reading in other KJV editions because one could misunderstand this to refer to the Holy Spirit, when I believe this is talking about man's spirit.
1 John 5:7 is the witness of God in Heaven.
1 John 5:8 is the witness of man on Earth.
1 John 5:9 circles back to the point in 1 John 5:7 saying that the witness of God is greater.
The capitalized "Spirit" reading in other KJV editions is not a contradiction with the Pure Cambridge because there was no standardization in spelling yet and or others preferred the older "Spirit" reading like the Concorde edition in the 1950s.
Before standardization, words could be capitalized for emphasis.

Granted, I do give great weight to the Beza 1598 Greek and the Ben Chayyim Masoretic Hebrew, too (Which underlies the KJV).
By 1638, we can see the lowercase "spirit" appeared (spelled with lowercase "f" instead of an "s").



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This is mine. Holman-KJV-Study-Bible-001.jpg
 
I have this one and also a large

This is mine. View attachment 280866

Yes, that is nice. Not a fan of hardcovers, though. I always felt like a Bible should be in leather. I also love the super giant print so I don't have to read it with my glasses.

Granted, there is the leather-bound edition of this, but it is a little steep in price for me right now.
I am happy with the Bibles I have currently.


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Rev. 14: 12 Here is the patience of the saints: here are they that keep the commandments of God, and the faith of Jesus.

You REALLY have to be careful, which Bible version you use. The Roman Church has corrupted many of the "modern" Bible versions, like the NIV ... which says, ( in many Bible references )" ... the faith IN Jesus" rather than the "faith OF Jesus" of the KJV. The changing of this one little word, becomes a salvational issue. It's because of Jesus' Faith and our having the same Faith as Jesus had, that we are able return to being Children of God.

With that in mind, the phrase “faith of Jesus Christ” in Romans 3:22 and Galatians 3:22 is talking about having faith in Jesus, not about Jesus Himself having faith in God as some have mistakenly claimed.

Y'all need to get your stories straight.


Cross posted.
 
Y'all need to get your stories straight.


Cross posted.

So if that is the case, then I should treat everyone in the Modern Bible Movement as having the same interpretation on the same verse, too. In other words, I can turn the tables and play this same game with you too if you like.

For example:

1. Dan Wallace’s View on Luke 23:34a:

Dan Wallace clearly questions the authenticity of Luke 23:34a.

“The external evidence for its omission is significant, and the internal evidence is even stronger. Although this saying is consistent with Jesus’ character, it is probably not part of the original text of Luke.”
— Daniel B. Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics (Zondervan, 1996), p. 52 n.22

He also repeats this view online:

“The prayer, ‘Father, forgive them, for they do not know what they are doing,’ is found in some important manuscripts but lacking in others of equal or greater weight… It’s likely a later addition.”
— Dan Wallace, Bible.org, article titled “The Textual Problem in Luke 23:34,” published 2007
(https://bible.org/article/textual-problem-luke-2334)

So, Wallace’s stance:
He believes Luke 23:34a is likely not original, calling it an interpolation added later by scribes.


2. James White’s View on Luke 23:34a:

James White defends the authenticity of Luke 23:34.
In his debates and writings, he often emphasizes that while the verse is missing in a few early Alexandrian witnesses, it is supported by the overwhelming majority of Greek manuscripts and early versions.

“The text of Luke 23:34 is found in the vast majority of manuscripts. The minority omission does not call for its removal. There is no reason to doubt that these words were truly spoken by our Lord.”
— James R. White, The King James Only Controversy, Revised Edition (Bethany House, 2009), p. 269

He also said in his 2016 Dividing Line broadcast:

“I believe Jesus did say those words. The evidence of omission is very limited compared to the wide range of manuscripts that contain it.”

So, James White’s stance:
He affirms Luke 23:34 as genuine and should remain in Scripture.


So to put it to you another way (speaking of Critical Text Advocates):

"Y'all need to get your stories straight."



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Y'all need to get your stories straight.


Cross posted.

Also, when it comes to this discussion, it goes beyond having a different interpretation of the same verse (Which happens even in the Modern Bible Movement). The Critical Text was never used by church history for any good length of time, nor was it a part of the Reformation, etc. It was a new Sham Wow Bible that appeared overnight by Westcott, Hort, Unitarian George Vance Smith, & others, which keeps shape-shifting and will never stop shape-shifting. In addition, the doctrines in the Critical Text are heretical and silly. (Which my PDF demonstrates) The translation differences (which are many) and the textual differences are bad when compared to the TR / KJV. This is just a fact that you and others here will have to deal with someday.



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Unitarian George Vance Smith says that theological doctrines had been changed in his book called,

"Texts and Margins of the Revised New Testament Affecting Theological Doctrine"

https://books.google.com/books?id=TdfYDjdkRlwC&pg=PA1#v=onepage&q&f=false

George Vance Smith worked on the English Revised Version that came out in 1881, along with Westcott and Hort.
Westcott and Hort even fellowshipped with this guy, and they threatened to quit if he was not a part of the translation committee.
So this is the origin of the Modern Bible Movement today. Its origin is rooted in heretics like this.

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So if that is the case, then I should treat everyone in the Modern Bible Movement as having the same interpretation on the same verse, too. In other words, I can turn the tables and play this same game with you too if you like.

For example:

1. Dan Wallace’s View on Luke 23:34a:

Dan Wallace clearly questions the authenticity of Luke 23:34a.

“The external evidence for its omission is significant, and the internal evidence is even stronger. Although this saying is consistent with Jesus’ character, it is probably not part of the original text of Luke.”
— Daniel B. Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics (Zondervan, 1996), p. 52 n.22

He also repeats this view online:

“The prayer, ‘Father, forgive them, for they do not know what they are doing,’ is found in some important manuscripts but lacking in others of equal or greater weight… It’s likely a later addition.”
— Dan Wallace, Bible.org, article titled “The Textual Problem in Luke 23:34,” published 2007
(https://bible.org/article/textual-problem-luke-2334)

So, Wallace’s stance:
He believes Luke 23:34a is likely not original, calling it an interpolation added later by scribes.


2. James White’s View on Luke 23:34a:

James White defends the authenticity of Luke 23:34.
In his debates and writings, he often emphasizes that while the verse is missing in a few early Alexandrian witnesses, it is supported by the overwhelming majority of Greek manuscripts and early versions.

“The text of Luke 23:34 is found in the vast majority of manuscripts. The minority omission does not call for its removal. There is no reason to doubt that these words were truly spoken by our Lord.”
— James R. White, The King James Only Controversy, Revised Edition (Bethany House, 2009), p. 269

He also said in his 2016 Dividing Line broadcast:

“I believe Jesus did say those words. The evidence of omission is very limited compared to the wide range of manuscripts that contain it.”

So, James White’s stance:
He affirms Luke 23:34 as genuine and should remain in Scripture.
Did I affirm either of these? Did another poster on this forum affirm either of these?

Or are you just streeeeetching for a comeback?
 
Did I affirm either of these? Did another poster on this forum affirm either of these?

Do I affirm that particular KJV believer’s odd interpretation? No.

So then, if you don’t affirm leading scholars like Wallace and White in the Critical Text Modern Bible Movement, why should I affirm a KJV believer who holds to an odd-ball interpretation that fails to properly recognize the uncommon words in the KJV?




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Do I affirm that particular KJV believer’s odd interpretation? No.

So then, if you don’t affirm leading scholars like Wallace and White in the Critical Text Modern Bible Movement, why should I affirm a KJV believer who holds to an odd-ball interpretation that fails to properly recognize the uncommon words in the KJV?
Did I ask you to affirm what he wrote?

No.

Try again.
 
Did I ask you to affirm what he wrote?

No.

I am only turning your argument back on itself because you said you don't affirm Wallace or White.
So, if you don't affirm them and they hold to different beliefs on certain verses, then why would I affirm this KJV believer who has an odd view that "faith of Jesus" is talking about Christ's faith, when it clearly is not? Context, and cross references determine also the truth of a verse (Which this person is ignoring).

Besides, is his interpretation somehow definitive of the scholarly consensus in the TR / KJV circles?
This person probably does not even look to the Hebrew and the Greek that underlies the KJV.
Even if they did, they are ignoring the context.
So, naturally they are going to come away with kooky interpretations at times. Christians also do this in the Modern Bible Movement, as well. They are not immune to this problem. So I fail to see the logic of your point. It simply does not hold any merit here.





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So you are saying that the KJV translators with many of them knowing multiple languages and writing dictionaries in other languages and who can speak Hebrew and Greek since they were really young could not get this reading right?

Or are you pulling a Mark Ward tactic here and claiming that the word "study" did not mean hit the books like we understand it today?

No, I am saying that that with bible, God's word , it is far more important to compare any translation with original given by God in Hebrew and Greek than it is to compare one translation with another. I also say that some English words have changed their meanings since 1611. Some words which appear in the KJV now have very different meanings to those they had in 1611. Some examples are carriages, prevent, conversation, botch, publican, sodden, careful, charity and closet.

As for Mark Ward, I am not pulling him, because I don't even know who he is/was.
 
No, I am saying that that with bible, God's word , it is far more important to compare any translation with original given by God in Hebrew and Greek than it is to compare one translation with another. I also say that some English words have changed their meanings since 1611. Some words which appear in the KJV now have very different meanings to those they had in 1611. Some examples are carriages, prevent, conversation, botch, publican, sodden, careful, charity and closet.

I am a very strong advocate for a Christian to know the original languages, but when the Modern Bible Advocate does so, they sometimes tend to correct the Bible in English. The problem is that they are not fluent in these languages to know the grammar fully, the context, etcetera. They are, in essence, silently claiming they are better than the 60-47 translators. Granted, we are reaching a time where AI can eliminate some of these problems, but sometimes the AI will cater to a person's own false narratives unless they are a real truth seeker and investigator.

I understand you think that the Word of God is bound only in the original languages.

But which original language manuscripts?

What is your guide?
  1. The Critical Text (i.e., the Nestle and Aland 28 that gives Vaticanus and Sinaiticus priority)?
  2. The extant Byzantine Majority (where no English translation fully reflects all 5,800 of these Greek MSS)?
  3. The Textus Receptus (which edition)?
Have you examined all of these to truly know which one is superior in doctrine, ethics, and history?
If you look at history, which one appears to have the hand of God upon it?

You said:
As for Mark Ward, I am not pulling him, because I don't even know who he is/was.

Mark Ward is famous for trying to attack the archaic or uncommon words in the KJV.
His goal is to undermine the trust of those who believe in it because it has a few archaic words that they can simply learn or use other tools to help understand (just as you would with a Greek word study).

Here is a good introduction to Mark Ward:

Its a video by B. Peterson who examines Ward's claims:


Here is a PDF you can view that goes into the Subtle Critical Text Agenda (which involves Mark Ward):
https://www.dropbox.com/scl/fi/8mlv...ey=d2ja3hdkpxas2fnm66nl2w2f6&st=f7s5qpiv&dl=0

My point is that if you look at things like a detective who is unbiased and you piece together patterns of evidence, you will see the truth. You have to look at things from a practical standpoint.

Many Christians do not know the original languages, and they just read the Bible in English and think that is the Word of God.
Or worse yet, they let the scholar or pastor think for them, sort of like a priest in a Catholic church does for its laity when it comes to understanding the Scriptures. I remember arguing with a Catholic once on a forum who said that we Protestants need to unify and submit to a priest's understanding of the Scriptures instead of trying to figure out the Bible for ourselves.

Are you aware that the Nestle and Aland 27th edition was supervised by the Vatican and that a liberal Catholic cardinal named Carlo Maria Martini worked on this text? Granted, he may not have even made any changes that were evil, but the fact that the Catholic Church was officially involved with Protestants on a Greek text is disturbing to me. The NA28 is what is used today for all your Modern English Bibles.

Are you aware that a heretic (Unitarian George Vance Smith) worked alongside Westcott and Hort on the English Revised Version that gives Vaticanus and Sinaiticus priority? Westcott and Hort started the Modern Bible Movement you see today.

Words matter, and even if you don't think the Bible is bound to any English translation, it does not mean they don't affect the vast majority of the church. In fact, are you not guided by the English translation when you look at a Greek word? Do you not read your Bible in English, or do you read it in Greek? Did you repent in Greek?

The reality is that:

(a) We do see corrupt doctrines in Modern Bibles, which includes the NKJV (although it is a TR-based Bible).
These doctrines have affected people's faith. The Kenosis theology, the idea that Jesus sinned, and that Jesus is not eternally God are just a few of the false doctrines floating around because of the influence of Modern Bibles.

So even if you think the Word of God is bound up in the original language manuscripts, in a text you no doubt do not use and cannot read fluently on your own, the fact of the matter is that many fall prey to false beliefs because of Modern English Translations. It is a reality you have to quietly sidestep or ignore.

(b) There are differences in doctrine on a textual level when you compare the Textus Receptus against the Critical Text or the Majority Text. In fact, those who claim to be for the Majority Text also sprinkle in some Critical Text readings to fit their preferences. So they do not have any kind of text that ever existed in the church at any point in history because they are making an artificially constructed text. See, I don't understand why you don't get this. Your imaginary, artificially constructed Greek text in your mind will differ from the guy who thinks the same way you do. There is no true agreement on what God's Word actually says precisely, and this means God's Word can mean whatever you like it to say or not say.

In the Great Commission, Jesus said we are to teach all nations. How can you do that with a Bible that is disputed and contradictory, one that exists differently in your own mind compared to your neighbor’s mind who has the same eclectic mindset?

By your stance, it appears to suggest that TR and KJV believers are on the wrong side of history.

If so, then how do you deal with the warnings in Revelation that tell us not to add or take away from God's Word? Revelation is not immune to the corruptions or changes in the Modern Bible Movement. One side has to be correct, and the other is wrong. Men died for our Bible in history. Our Bible caused great revivals. What did your Bible do? Oh, that's right, it exists only in your own mind and has no influence. Where is the Greek text today that is perfect and transforms people's lives? You will not find it. God made the universe perfectly. His work is perfect. So if God gives us His Word, then the Scriptures also must be perfect because they are His work.

You say they are in Hebrew and Greek, but which ones? Which Greek text is perfect and shows forth the beauty and influence upon God's people today in a powerful way? You don't have one. You don't have a Bible that truly exhibits this. This is the problem with your belief. You have sealed up the words of God only to a patchwork of Greek MSS that you have to construct in your mind. This concept is not biblical. Jesus simply quoted Scripture with authority. You are not doing that. So again, where is your Greek text, and do you see the differences with the other ones?

(c) There is a subtle agenda to shift Textus Receptus and King James Bible believers away from the TR and KJV and into the Critical Text camp. This is done through the NKJV, the KJVER translation, Mark Ward, and others. Critical Text translation choices, not always textual changes, are subtly promoted as corrections or updates to the TR and KJV in a select few key strategic places.

In a select few key strategic places, the KJV believer can be caught unaware of this agenda. It actually started back in 1881 with the English Revised Version under Westcott and Hort. It was supposed to be a simple KJV update. The ERV edition even states in its opening that it was the version set forth in 1611 in that edition. However, it is not the version set forth in 1611 because it gives Vaticanus and Sinaiticus priority, just like today’s Nestle and Aland edition does. So the whole Modern Bible Movement is based on deception. Would God bless deception? Brother, really, do you not see this? What I am saying here is all factually verifiable.

Another one of my concerns is that you use the NKJV, and yet that translation has employed massive deception as a part of its advertising and appearance as a translation. They do not tell you that it does not always follow the TR which the KJV translators followed (i.e., Beza 1598). How can you use a Bible that employs deception and not be sick to your stomach? Would God bless deception like that? Granted, I am not saying God cannot use any text or translation even if it is corrupted, but would He bless it? No. How can God fully agree with His words being corrupted? It does not make any sense. Most today preach from an English translation, and yet you say they have errors. Not all pastors agree on what is an error or not. So there is no standard. There is no power or authority in trusting the Scriptures based on this.

Again, think of Jesus. How did He treat the Scriptures? Did He not treat them as if they were an authority? Did Jesus have the originals, or were they copies? Think about that.

If what you say is true, then the Greek New Testament should have been written in the old ancient Hebrew. But God did not stay in the past as you suggest. God moved on with the Greek-speaking world. Why you think God has changed in His character is beyond me. God would have naturally moved on to the world language of our day, which is English. It is a basic logical deduction of God’s unchanging nature.


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But God did not stay in the past as you suggest. God moved on with the Greek-speaking world.

@DavidLamb

Editorial correction on my last paragraph to you in Post #159:

I Meant to say,

"But God did not stay in the past as your belief quietly implies.
God moved on with the Greek-speaking world."
~ An Updated Quote by me, "Bible Highlighter."​

I am not saying you are suggesting this with your words, but it is your belief that would lead to that conclusion (whether you realize that fact or not), even if you may not agree with my conclusion that this may be so.

In any event, if still do not agree, we can agree to disagree in love and respect of course.

May God bless you.


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