Sure, but this month or the next leaves other months still available. This age or the next leaves no other ages to be considered, unless you believe there will be additional ages. Do you believe there are additional ages?
Saved by faith alone?
- Thread starter Lamar
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“but he who blasphemes against the Holy Spirit never has forgiveness, but is subject to eternal condemnation”—”
Mark 3:29 NKJV
In my example, a person coming to dine in this month on a Sunday will not be served while they are there on Sunday; and a person coming to dine in the next month on a Sunday will not be served while they are there on Sunday. But if they come on a Monday to Saturday in this month, or the next, they will be served, whether in this month or the next. The qualification " in this month or the next" does not mean they need to come on a Sunday in a later month and they might be served. No. they can stop coming on Sundays in this month or the next, and will be able to be served in this month or the next.
Likewise, a person who slanders the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven of that slander while they are maintaining their slander, either in this age or the next. But if they stop slandering the Holy Spirit in this age or the next, and instead honour Him, they can be forgiven in this age and the next.
BTW there are more ages to come than the age to come.
Eph 2:7
That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward us through Christ Jesus.
.
I understand your explanation; I simply disagree with what you are saying the verse means. If there is no age in which a particular sin is forgiven, then there is no time when it is forgiven. Jesus doesn't say that the sin will be forgiven every other Tuesday. He is stating that there is no time when the sin will be forgiven. Hence, the passage isn't stating that the sin isn't forgiven while it is being practiced, but that it will not be forgiven period, notwithstanding your insistence otherwise.
Mar 3:29
But whosoever (ὃς δ᾽ ἂν) blasphemed/blasphemes (βλασφημήσῃ, aorist active subjunctive, slandered/slanders) against the Holy Spirit (εἰς τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον) does not have (οὐκ ἔχει, present indicative active, ) forgiveness (ἄφεσιν ) into the age (εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα), but (ἀλλ᾽) in danger (ἔνοχός) is (ἐστιν) of eonous/age-long (αἰωνίου) damnation (κρίσεως) :
ὃς δ᾽ ἂν βλασφημήσῃ εἰς τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον οὐκ ἔχει ἄφεσιν εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα ἀλλ᾽ ἔνοχός ἐστιν αἰωνίου κρίσεως,
The Greek text does not say "never has forgiveness".
Interestingly, if "but is subject to eternal condemnation” is a correct translation of ἀλλ᾽ ἔνοχός ἐστιν αἰωνίου κρίσεως, then the correcy translation of
Mat 5:21
Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment:
Mat 5:22
But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.
would be -
Mat 5:21
Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be subject to the judgment:
Mat 5:22
But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be subject to the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be subject to the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be subject to hell fire.
The =re is a difference between being in danger of and being subject to. The latter is not a done deal.
Yes of course. God's grace and the peace that passes all understanding. I don't think you are giving that out.
Idk Greek, it maybe as you say. All I have to go on is the English NKJV. This is all He expects from most of us.
It’s really enough since many people have problems with the comprehension of the English version let alone learning Greek or Hebrew.
I have known a few people who with mental issues which included a fear that they had committed the so-called unpardonable sin at one point in their life, and had been coached that these verses mean there is no way back to God from there for those guilty of that. Bibles all vary in their paraphrasing of the Greek text, and they can't all be correct. The Received Text, I believe, is correct. So that's what I work from to understand what God has revealed to us.
My formal training in KoinE Greek was one year of weekly one hour evening classes in each of Biblical Hebrew and Greek. So, it does not take much to get a basic grounding in the mechanics of the biblical languages. After that 40 years of informal study. Expertise does not require formal degrees. And there are some very capable translators who were self-taught, like Robert Young. We don't have to follow so-called experts. We can do our own research under the guidance of the Holy Spirit. I don't find arguing from Bible versions and from commentators works very well to arrive at God's truth. It just gets people formed into opposing camps.
Anyone can check my paraphrases posted here against an interlinear resource on-line to see if I am not handling the Greek and Hebrew honestly.
Okay then. If you claim you understand my explanation, you should be able to tell me in your own words what my explanation is. Can you do that?
Sure. You believe that the sin in view cannot be forgiven while the sin is being practiced, but can be forgiven at other times when it is being refrained from.
No, but...I stayed at a Holiday Inn Express one time.Pulling teeth... are you licensed for this? .
That is not my explanation. That is the conclusion to my explanation. Can you explain how I got there from the Greek? Also, why I cited 1 John 2:2 in regard to Matt. 12:32?
Sure. You have employed verb tenses to establish other possible explanations for what the passage allows for.
No. You clearly haven't made much effort if any to understand my argument. You have only taken some notice of the general methodology of the argument. You haven't been able to repeat the reasoning back in your own words. What in particular was wrong in my employment of verb forms (the aorist isn't a tense) to establish other possible explanations for what the passage allows?
Nothing wrong with studying verb tenses and I don't have a problem with your explanations. You obviously haven't been paying attention to my posts. What is the objection I have made throughout to your conclusion?
That last line should say
"There is a difference between "being in danger of" and "being subject to". The latter is a done deal.[/QUOTE]
One objection was that the phrases "neither in this age nor in the age to come" leave no time in which the unpardoned sin can be pardoned.
Another of your objections was that to you the sense of the English translations clearly supports your position, that slandering the Holy Spirit is a sin that is unforgivable, and therefore any interpretation of those texts that allow any avenue/s for forgiveness of that sin must be falsely twisting the words of God.
Both of these objections have been disproved with evidence. You have not addressed the evidence, but have merely dismissed it out of hand and reasserted your two objections.
You got it mostly right and I appreciate that, as well as the discussion.
Grace and peace.