Are giants the offspring of angels and humans?
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Speaking of assumptions, let me address your assumption.
Did Jesus have a wiener/penis in his earthly body?
Yes, he did. We know this of a certainty because he was circumcised when he was eight days old.
Does Jesus still have a wiener/penis in his glorified body?
It seems to me that he does...unless you have some scriptural evidence which suggests that he has since become a eunuch or asexual. You don't have any such evidence, do you? If you think that you do, then post the scriptures which support that hypothesis.
I am a man, and the last time that I checked, I had a wiener/penis. Hold on a second. Yep, I still have one.
If I attain to the resurrection of the just, will I have a wiener/penis in my glorified body?
Phl 3:20
For our conversation is in heaven; from whence also we look for the Saviour, the Lord Jesus Christ:
Phl 3:21
Who shall change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body, according to the working whereby he is able even to subdue all things unto himself.
The presently vile bodies of Christians will be fashioned like Jesus' glorious body in the resurrection of the just. Again, does Jesus, as a male, currently have a wiener/penis? I believe that he still does. If you believe that you can prove otherwise, then post the scriptures which prove it. If Jesus, as a male, still has a wiener/penis in his glorified body, then I fully expect that all males who are saved will still have wieners/penises in their glorified bodies as well. Is that somewhat of an assumption on my part? Sure, it is, but at least it has credence in scripture. What you fail to recognize and admit is that your oft-repeated claim about angels not having wieners/penises is an assumption on your part. Does you assumption have biblical credence? You think that it does, but it is not nearly as credible as you personally and presently believe it to be.
As others here have already pointed out to you, whenever gender is stated in relation to angelic beings, they are either fully male or, in the case of the living creatures, at least one of their faces is the face of a man. Furthermore, other descriptions which pertain to males, like princes and kings, are used in relation to angels in scripture. Further still, angels make up the heavenly host or army, and, in scripture, it is the males who God sends out to war or battle, so that is another indicator that at least many angels are male.
With this information before us, it is perfectly rational to consider that male angels have wieners/penises in heaven, just like Jesus, a male, and the male saints seemingly do or will.
Is Jesus having sexual relations in heaven? No, he is not, but this does not necessarily mean that he does not have a wiener/penis.
Are any males saints having sexual relations in heaven? No, they are not, but this does not necessarily mean that they don't have wieners/penises.
Are any angels having sexual relations in heaven? No, they are not, but this does not necessarily mean that they don't have wieners/penises.
Does the Bible at least imply that a specific subset of angels WHO LEFT HEAVEN had sexual relations with women HERE ON EARTH? Yes, it does.
Jde 1:6
And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day.
Jde 1:7
Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire.
I am still waiting for you to tell me who these angels are who sinned (2 Pet. 2:4) after not keeping their first estate, or after leaving their own habitation, or after LEAVING HEAVEN in order to give themselves to fornication, and in order to go after strange flesh, IN LIKE MANNER or EVEN AS the sinful men of Sodom did.
Did Jesus have a wiener/penis in his earthly body?
Yes, he did. We know this of a certainty because he was circumcised when he was eight days old.
Does Jesus still have a wiener/penis in his glorified body?
It seems to me that he does...unless you have some scriptural evidence which suggests that he has since become a eunuch or asexual. You don't have any such evidence, do you? If you think that you do, then post the scriptures which support that hypothesis.
I am a man, and the last time that I checked, I had a wiener/penis. Hold on a second. Yep, I still have one.
If I attain to the resurrection of the just, will I have a wiener/penis in my glorified body?
Phl 3:20
For our conversation is in heaven; from whence also we look for the Saviour, the Lord Jesus Christ:
Phl 3:21
Who shall change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body, according to the working whereby he is able even to subdue all things unto himself.
The presently vile bodies of Christians will be fashioned like Jesus' glorious body in the resurrection of the just. Again, does Jesus, as a male, currently have a wiener/penis? I believe that he still does. If you believe that you can prove otherwise, then post the scriptures which prove it. If Jesus, as a male, still has a wiener/penis in his glorified body, then I fully expect that all males who are saved will still have wieners/penises in their glorified bodies as well. Is that somewhat of an assumption on my part? Sure, it is, but at least it has credence in scripture. What you fail to recognize and admit is that your oft-repeated claim about angels not having wieners/penises is an assumption on your part. Does you assumption have biblical credence? You think that it does, but it is not nearly as credible as you personally and presently believe it to be.
As others here have already pointed out to you, whenever gender is stated in relation to angelic beings, they are either fully male or, in the case of the living creatures, at least one of their faces is the face of a man. Furthermore, other descriptions which pertain to males, like princes and kings, are used in relation to angels in scripture. Further still, angels make up the heavenly host or army, and, in scripture, it is the males who God sends out to war or battle, so that is another indicator that at least many angels are male.
With this information before us, it is perfectly rational to consider that male angels have wieners/penises in heaven, just like Jesus, a male, and the male saints seemingly do or will.
Is Jesus having sexual relations in heaven? No, he is not, but this does not necessarily mean that he does not have a wiener/penis.
Are any males saints having sexual relations in heaven? No, they are not, but this does not necessarily mean that they don't have wieners/penises.
Are any angels having sexual relations in heaven? No, they are not, but this does not necessarily mean that they don't have wieners/penises.
Does the Bible at least imply that a specific subset of angels WHO LEFT HEAVEN had sexual relations with women HERE ON EARTH? Yes, it does.
Jde 1:6
And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day.
Jde 1:7
Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire.
I am still waiting for you to tell me who these angels are who sinned (2 Pet. 2:4) after not keeping their first estate, or after leaving their own habitation, or after LEAVING HEAVEN in order to give themselves to fornication, and in order to go after strange flesh, IN LIKE MANNER or EVEN AS the sinful men of Sodom did.
You need to apply an honest hermeneutical approach when using the Jude and Peter verses. You assert that the adjacency of these two verses in Jude proves that they are connected.
I will therefore put you in remembrance, though ye once knew this, how that the Lord, having saved the people out of the land of Egypt, afterward destroyed them that believed not. And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day. Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire. Likewise also these filthy dreamers defile the flesh, despise dominion, and speak evil of dignities. Jude 1:5-8
However in 2 Peter the adjacency doesn't exist, even though it mentions Sodom. Are you going to be honest and apply the same rule to 2 Peter and say that the fallen angels have something to do with Noah? And through covetousness shall they with feigned words make merchandise of you: whose judgment now of a long time lingereth not, and their damnation slumbereth not. For if God spared not the angels that sinned, but cast them down to hell, and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved unto judgment; And spared not the old world, but saved Noah the eighth person, a preacher of righteousness, bringing in the flood upon the world of the ungodly; And turning the cities of Sodom and Gomorrha into ashes condemned them with an overthrow, making them an ensample unto those that after should live ungodly; 2 Peter 2:3-6
Furthermore you're misreading the part that says "in like manner". It's referring to the cities that sinned in a like manner as SodomEven as Sodom and Gomorrha and the cities about them in like manner gave themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh,
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Are you trying to kill me? I ask because my brain almost fell out of my head when I read your post.
Am I going to apply the same rule to 2 Peter and say that the fallen angels have something to do with Noah?
Where have you been? That is precisely what I have been saying all along. Of course, I believe that the fallen angels had something to do with Noah because they were having sexual relations with the daughters of men in that day, and that produced a bunch of giants.
Also, I haven't misread anything in Jude. The sin of the angels who left heaven is EVEN AS Sodom and Gomorrah and the cities about them who IN LIKE MANNER gave themselves to fornication while going after strange flesh. In other words, these angels were guilty of the same type of sin as all of these cities were. I am still waiting for you to tell me what sin that was...even though we just read what it was.
What does somebody have to do to get an answer out of you? It is easier to get the last bit of toothpaste out of a tube than it is to get you to answer a direct question with a direct answer, and we both know why that is.
Am I going to apply the same rule to 2 Peter and say that the fallen angels have something to do with Noah?
Where have you been? That is precisely what I have been saying all along. Of course, I believe that the fallen angels had something to do with Noah because they were having sexual relations with the daughters of men in that day, and that produced a bunch of giants.
Also, I haven't misread anything in Jude. The sin of the angels who left heaven is EVEN AS Sodom and Gomorrah and the cities about them who IN LIKE MANNER gave themselves to fornication while going after strange flesh. In other words, these angels were guilty of the same type of sin as all of these cities were. I am still waiting for you to tell me what sin that was...even though we just read what it was.
What does somebody have to do to get an answer out of you? It is easier to get the last bit of toothpaste out of a tube than it is to get you to answer a direct question with a direct answer, and we both know why that is.
I can't tell who's arguing what at this point since it seems to me that you've all become "echad."
Backing up to the concept of being "echad" in marriage, and why, for this reason, the unbeliever is sanctified by the believer. God looks at the two as 'echad' one. Are the two only considered 'echad' when they engage their uglies and so are no longer 'echad' once 'disengaged'? If so, I think this is too shallow a definition of it.
Backing up to the concept of being "echad" in marriage, and why, for this reason, the unbeliever is sanctified by the believer. God looks at the two as 'echad' one. Are the two only considered 'echad' when they engage their uglies and so are no longer 'echad' once 'disengaged'? If so, I think this is too shallow a definition of it.
"Echad" in scripture is not solely connected to marriage. For example, it is used here to describe the unity among those who were building the tower of Babel. Not only unity in purpose, but also unity in language at that time.
Gen 11:6
And the LORD said, Behold, the people is one (echad), and they have all one (echad) language; and this they begin to do: and now nothing will be restrained from them, which they have imagined to do.
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I agree Sodom and Gormorrha was fornicating along with cities around them.
Scripture mentions 3 accounts in those verses. The first the Egyptian that didn't believe was destroyed.
The second the angels that got sent straight to hell no stop over on earth for a bit but locked in chains.
Scripture mentions 3 accounts in those verses. The first the Egyptian that didn't believe was destroyed.
The second the angels that got sent straight to hell no stop over on earth for a bit but locked in chains.
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You're stumbling over the translation and don't have the discipline to investigate what the Greek is really saying.
First, Jude 1:5-7 follows this format
Instead of me having to take the time to do a literal translation of the Greek, I suggest you review how Jude 1:7 is translated in other bibles than the one you're using, which I suspect is the King James (link below)
https://biblehub.com/jude/1-7.htmes
First, Jude 1:5-7 follows this format
I intend to remind you:
- God destroyed the ones who escaped out of Egypt who didn't believe
- God is keeping the angels that deserted their dwelling in everlasting chains of darkness into judgment
- God destroyed Sodom and Gomorrah and the cities around them in like manner that were committing fornication
Instead of me having to take the time to do a literal translation of the Greek, I suggest you review how Jude 1:7 is translated in other bibles than the one you're using, which I suspect is the King James (link below)
https://biblehub.com/jude/1-7.htmes
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