Did Jesus qualify his statement in Mk 10:18? And besides...if any of the "apples" are partially good, then why couldn't we use the same rationale for God who alone is good? After all, you think Jesus was making a comparison between God and mankind; but in reality he was making a stark contrast! What you're trying to do is violate the Law of the Excluded Middle. There is no third option between good and evil in scripture.
I have explained this several times in this thread. But you are too calcified in your opinions to grasp it.
If someone tries to sell you an apple, telling you it is good, but you see some bruises on it, you will say, "No, it's not good. It is damaged." If there is only one perfectly good apple in the shop, You could say "There is only one apple that is good: that one." But you would not say that all the other apples, though not good, are totally worthless and rotten; and nothing good can be achieved with them.
Exactly the same logic applies to Jesus' words. But you refuse to acknowledge it, because your doctrine is more important to you than the truth. There is none Good but God only: perfectly good. But the "bad" are not totally evil. There is some good in them.
Hence, Jesus' words, "If you who are evil know how to give good things to your children, how much more will God give the Holy Spirit to those who ask Him."
If you cannot grasp that and honestly acknowledge it, you are truly self-deceived.