Did Jesus Die on The Cross for The Just/Elect/Saved Whose Names Are Written in The Book of Life OR

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Niki7

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You do understand that Paul is talking about Jews and Gentiles in Rom 3:9-18, right? You do understand that that is Paul's UNIVERSAL indictment against all mankind, right? Are the Jews still part of the human race or do the Jews differ from humans?
Apples and oranges. You are avoiding the point being made.

Gee I hope that is not on purpose! :oops:
 

Everlasting-Grace

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Dec 18, 2021
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Not actually.

22 You are to have the same law for a man of another nation living among you as for an Israelite; for I am the Lord your God.
22 There is but one law on this matter for you, immigrant or citizen alike, because I am the LORD your God.


Other nations knew about God and His Law.

Learn the Torah, it will be your friend rather just making these false assumptions that you do post after post.
They still rejected him, Like jews have for years
 
Apr 27, 2023
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Am I the only one who sees the Israelites and Jews as different, and that there was condemnation of Israel in the New Testament?
 

PaulThomson

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Oct 29, 2023
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This is false because the Jews were blinded by God and deafened so they could not hear. Read Paul's explanation.
Maybe you are misunderstanding the figure of speech Jesus is using. When I request my son to put away his video game and tidy his room, he hears me, but does not want to obey. So, he ignores me. If I come in every five minutes to check on progress, and repeat my request, but he does not want to leave his game and comply, he still hears me, but is hardening his heart to my request. One could also say that I am hardening his heart by repeating my request, even though that is not my intention, since he is becoming more belligerent with each request, If my request becomes a demand, he may think his belligerence is paying off and may continue to ignore my demands. He hears, but is not listening. He sees me and my body language, but he is tuning it out into background noise versus his attention on the game. If I continue checking in and begin threatening sanctions, he may ignore those as well. I am incidentally hardening his heart by my persistent crossing of his will, he is intentionally hardening his heart against my will. He hears but does not listen (the same word in Greek (akuO). He looks but does not take heed (the same word in Greek (blepO). My son has adopyed an attitude that equates to having eyes that do not take heed and ears that do not listen. My insistence on compliance has had the undesirable but perhaps predictable effect of deepening his self-imposed blindness and deafness. When I take his computer away for a few days, he could say, "You made me ignore you by your interrupting me every five minutes. If you had just left me alone, I would have gotten onto it eventually."

I did not intentionally blind and deafen my son, though I could have correctly predicted his response to my interference would be that he would tune out and stop his ears and close his eyes. But the deafness and the blindness was all his own doing. He could have chosen to respond differently.
 

Rufus

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Feb 17, 2024
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You LIE!

He specifically says Israel in verse 7 before saying they cannot hear or see!


So SHOW ME where he said that about the GENTILES?
Not in my bible it doesn't. Verse 7 reads:

Rom 3:7
7 Someone might argue, "If my falsehood enhances God's truthfulness and so increases his glory, why am I still condemned as a sinner?"
NIV

Verse 9 starts Paul's CONCLUSION about everything he has said previously. In chapters 1 and 2 he's been talking about the Gentiles and the Jews. This why he says in the part B of v. :) "We have already (previously) made the charge that Jews and Gentiles ALIKE are under sin..". Then in v. 10 he begins quoting various Psalms showing how those OT verses apply to all humanity. They don't apply to just the Jews!
 

Cameron143

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Mar 1, 2022
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PaulThomson said:
Can you please, quote the text and highlight where it says that hearing is given?

You are making the claim. It's your burden to prove it. Citing a bible reference is not proof.
I gave the passage that explains that it was given to the disciples to understand the mysteries of the kingdom. Then Jesus quotes Isaiah 6 and explains its meaning. They did hear and understand and see and did perceive and were converted. This understanding and perception was not given to others. The way we know is that they aren't converted.
 

PaulThomson

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Oct 29, 2023
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I gave the passage that explains that it was given to the disciples to understand the mysteries of the kingdom. Then Jesus quotes Isaiah 6 and explains its meaning. They did hear and understand and see and did perceive and were converted. This understanding and perception was not given to others. The way we know is that they aren't converted.
What are you afraid of? Post the full text and highlight where it says hearing is given. Only then will any rationalisation of how you came to your conclusion. will have any weight.
 

HeIsHere

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May 21, 2022
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PaulThomson said:
Can you please, quote the text and highlight where it says that hearing is given?

You are making the claim. It's your burden to prove it. Citing a bible reference is not proof.

This is the verse.
37 When the people heard this, they were cut to the heart and said to Peter and the other apostles, “Brothers, what shall we do?”

Acts 2:37
 

Rufus

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Feb 17, 2024
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Apples and oranges. You are avoiding the point being made.

Gee I hope that is not on purpose! :oops:
No, I did not avoid the point! Rom 3:11 says NO ONE is righteous...NO ONE UNDERSTANDS. "No one" doesn't mean "some". "No one" doesn't mean "many". It means all unregenerate mankind does not understand spiritual truth. In other words, they don't "hear" the gospel truth. And if you want to find out why mankind cannot and does not hear the truth, read chapter 1 for starters some day. Unregenerate mankind NATURALLY suppresses the truth in unrighteousness. It's in their DNA! This is why they don't hear (understand).
 

HeIsHere

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May 21, 2022
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I gave the passage that explains that it was given to the disciples to understand the mysteries of the kingdom. Then Jesus quotes Isaiah 6 and explains its meaning. They did hear and understand and see and did perceive and were converted. This understanding and perception was not given to others. The way we know is that they aren't converted.
37 When the people heard this, they were cut to the heart and said to Peter and the other apostles, “Brothers, what shall we do?”

Does this verse state they were cut to the heart by God?

Or more likely they when they heard this ...
36 “Therefore let all Israel be assured of this: God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Messiah.”
it moved them because they were persuaded of its truth.

Again another assumption this was an act of God, but I cannot find it the passage.

Why was Peter having to beseech some of them if it was all an act of God.
It really does not add up.

38 Peter replied, “Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins. And you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. 39 The promise is for you and your children and for all who are far off—for all whom the Lord our God will call.”

40 With many other words he warned them; and he pleaded with them, “Save yourselves from this corrupt generation.” 41 Those who accepted his message were baptized, and about three thousand were added to their number that day.
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Acts+2-37&version=NIV


NEXT...
;)
 

PaulThomson

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Oct 29, 2023
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I gave the passage that explains that it was given to the disciples to understand the mysteries of the kingdom. Then Jesus quotes Isaiah 6 and explains its meaning. They did hear and understand and see and did perceive and were converted. This understanding and perception was not given to others. The way we know is that they aren't converted.
Why are you redefining hearing as understanding. Those are two quite different things.
 
Apr 27, 2023
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"No one" doesn't mean "some".
Wrong. No one could any number of nones. Just like all can be all of some group rather than all mankind. Reading the bible is not as simple as you think. ;)
 

BillyBob

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Dec 20, 2023
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Only the Jews are deaf right now. The Gentiles have the chance to become joint-heirs.
I am a JEW who came to Christ like my Dad and Grandfather. He was the first to believe in Jesus in our yiddish circle.
I am just now going through all the posts about Gentiles being able to see and hear but the Jews cannot. (even to this day)
But it puzzles me how both your grandpa, dad and yourself became Christians since you cannot see or hear?
 
Apr 27, 2023
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Why are you redefining hearing as understanding. Those are two quite different things.
There are two verbs for hearing in Greek. One of them includes understanding the noise, while the other doesn't indicate it. But I agree the someone is being to simplistic.
 

PaulThomson

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Oct 29, 2023
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This is the verse.
37 When the people heard this, they were cut to the heart and said to Peter and the other apostles, “Brothers, what shall we do?”

Acts 2:37
Hmmm? I agree with you. It doesn't say they were given some different hearing from what they had had before Peter spoke.
 

Rufus

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Feb 17, 2024
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What are you afraid of? Post the full text and highlight where it says hearing is given. Only then will any rationalisation of how you came to your conclusion. will have any weight.
Wow@!
Maybe you are misunderstanding the figure of speech Jesus is using. When I request my son to put away his video game and tidy his room, he hears me, but does not want to obey. So, he ignores me. If I come in every five minutes to check on progress, and repeat my request, but he does not want to leave his game and comply, he still hears me, but is hardening his heart to my request. One could also say that I am hardening his heart by repeating my request, even though that is not my intention, since he is becoming more belligerent with each request, If my request becomes a demand, he may think his belligerence is paying off and may continue to ignore my demands. He hears, but is not listening. He sees me and my body language, but he is tuning it out into background noise versus his attention on the game. If I continue checking in and begin threatening sanctions, he may ignore those as well. I am incidentally hardening his heart by my persistent crossing of his will, he is intentionally hardening his heart against my will. He hears but does not listen (the same word in Greek (akuO). He looks but does not take heed (the same word in Greek (blepO). My son has adopyed an attitude that equates to having eyes that do not take heed and ears that do not listen. My insistence on compliance has had the undesirable but perhaps predictable effect of deepening his self-imposed blindness and deafness. When I take his computer away for a few days, he could say, "You made me ignore you by your interrupting me every five minutes. If you had just left me alone, I would have gotten onto it eventually."

I did not intentionally blind and deafen my son, though I could have correctly predicted his response to my interference would be that he would tune out and stop his ears and close his eyes. But the deafness and the blindness was all his own doing. He could have chosen to respond differently.
You still liken God to man, don't you? You bring God down to your level so that you can make yourself equal to him? How God "hardens" men's hearts is by removing his restraining grace from them. That's what he did with Pharaoh when he hardened is heart! The king's heart is like a channel of water in God's hands and He directs it wherever he pleases (Prov 21:1).
 

PaulThomson

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Oct 29, 2023
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There are two verbs for hearing in Greek. One of them includes understanding the noise, while the other doesn't indicate it. But I agree the someone is being to simplistic.
What are those two verbs for hearing in the Greek?