Involving Isaiah 45:7: Do you take the High Calvinist's viewpoint that God directly created evil in the sense of God directly creating evil beings and sin?
I'm not going to discuss this verse further in this thread, because it's off-topic.
It's not yelling. It's sometimes also used as a means of emphasis on certain words. The Bible (KJB) also has "Super Caps."
It
is generally considered yelling; your opinion on the matter is irrelevant.There is no need to capitalize an entire sentence. Any capitalization (outside standard grammar) in the KJV is a function of the printer, not the translator, and certainly not the original authors. It's irrelevant.
The words, "for the land (people), has committed great whoredom" gives us the reason for the words that proceed it. So I disagree with your hermeneutics.
"Precede", not "proceed".
You can disagree all you like, but as you are ignoring the
obvious definition of the
second instance of "whoredoms" in favour of the
third, and doing so without
any explanation, it is
your hermeneutic method that is faulty.
But the verse explains that the land has committed whoredoms and therefore this is speaking to the people in general and not wouldn't make any sense if the whole region was all prostitutes. It only makes sense if they were into idolatry which is the main issue to God here.
I'm not arguing that the entire land was engaged in prostitution, but here's where the
figurative use of the term comes in.
I am assuming you wouldn't quote from a dictionary put out by Satanists or child abusers involving one's discussion of the Bible.
Does making such sensational (and utterly ridiculous) associations give you some special sick pleasure? It's completely unnecessary, and only inflames the conversation rather than moving it toward understanding.
Granted, I am not saying Mr. Strong is on that level, but the point here is that you are for the Modern Bible movement and you are using a dictionary that is biased to that movement.
My point is that Mr. Strong's involvement with a so-called "modern translation" does not in any way bias his work
against the KJV. Your assertion remains a fallacy of guilt by association.
I will provide it in my next post to you.
Thanks.
I am not sure you read these verses. If you did, you didn't catch what it said. God finds the sins of harlotry and sodomy to be abominations in his sight.
For what sin did God allow the Northern ten tribes to be scattered to the nations?