Paul says very clearly in Romans 3 and Galatians 1-4 that all our sins have been justified when we first believe. Justification is a legal term meaning that God our just Judge declares us "not guilty" and "right with him' in his court because Jesus took our guilty verdict on himself. However, you are correct in your statement in the sense that in our daily lives, we need to continue to repent of our sins, because we still have sinful natures in us.PSALMS 86:5
"For thou, Lord, art good, and ready to forgive; and plenteous in mercy unto all them that call upon thee."KJV.
REVELATION
3:19
"As many as I love, I rebuke and chasten: be zealous therefore, and repent."KJV
Godly sorrow brings godly repentance; do not think that whatever sins we MIGHT commit in the future are already forgiven and need NOT BE CONFESSED TO GOD & REPENTED OF @ the time of revelation & conviction!
Amen.Yep....this verse may read in English as past tense....but it's a tense in Early Latin/Greek that covers past, present, and future tense all at the same time. A tense that doesn't exist and has not existed in English.
Yes, the eternal form of the law for Israel has gone away through Jesus, but the inner principles continue on for the church. For example, the law saying we may not eat certain unclean foods is gone because Jesus and Paul both said that all foods are clean for us. However, those laws in Leviticus 11 have an inner meaning given by Paul that we need to clean up the uncleanness in our lives and replace them with godly qualities (for example, Paul's examples in Colossians 3 based on Jesus' resurrection power [verse 1])..
There are actually well-meaning folks at large sincerely believing that quote
from Hos 6:6 repeals the entire God-given book of Leviticus: yet Jesus said:
• Matt 5:17-19 . . Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the
Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the
truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least
stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything
is accomplished.
. . . Anyone who breaks one of the least of these commandments and
teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven,
but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in
the kingdom of heaven.
Hos 6:6, in its context with Hos 6:4-10, condemns Ephraim for cruelty and
thinking they could make up for it with atonements. No; the rituals, the
sacrifices, and the holy days of obligation etc. were never intended as
substitutes for good conduct. (cf. Isa 1:10-20)
* I can't help but wonder sometimes how many people come to church on
Easter Sunday thinking that will make up for a whole year living like the world.
_
How do we clean up the uncleanness? How do we acquire godly qualities?Yes, the eternal form of the law for Israel has gone away through Jesus, but the inner principles continue on for the church. For example, the law saying we may not eat certain unclean foods is gone because Jesus and Paul both said that all foods are clean for us. However, those laws in Leviticus 11 have an inner meaning given by Paul that we need to clean up the uncleanness in our lives and replace them with godly qualities (for example, Paul's examples in Colossians 3 based on Jesus' resurrection power [verse 1]).
How do we clean up the uncleanness? How do we acquire godly qualities?
Yep....this verse may read in English as past tense....but it's a tense in Early Latin/Greek that covers past, present, and future tense all at the same time. A tense that doesn't exist and has not existed in English.
Don't tell me he will be banned?
He does not even believe that the LORD Jesus Christ is God.Don't tell me he will be banned?
I thought he might believe in Judaism. He did not accept most of the N.T.He does not even believe that the LORD Jesus Christ is God.
And so obstinate about it.
Huh? I really don't care about any "Latin" tenses, but the Greek tenses are very important here, since that is what the original manuscripts of the New Testament were written in. But a Greek tense that covers "past, present, and future tenses all at the same time.?" I have been studying Greek for a long time and have never heard anyone or any resource make that claim before! Could you please tell me what Greek tense this is and what verb you are talking about. And then where do you get your information on this Greek tense?
Exactly what Theological position are you arguing and questioning me about? That those who believed AFTER Jesus ascended are too late to join the party?
its the "perfect" aortist tense.
And Early Latin is almost indistinguishable from Koine Greek. But it does allow for the construction of new words and phrases. Indeed Latin became the language of the Roman Empire.
I thought he might believe in Judaism. He did not accept most of the N.T.
The LORD is speaking here about himself, not Moses.
The LORD says,
“I have given it to you”
Leviticus 17:1,11 KJV
And the Lord spake unto Moses, saying, [11] For the life of the flesh is in the blood: and I have given it to you upon the altar to make an atonement for your souls: for it is the blood that maketh an atonement for the soul.
If we endure, etc.As if.
As if.
Anyway I also wroteAs if.
That was just a joke. Something we said as teenagers.If we endure, etc.
your not that ……
That's the correct understanding. If God has purposed something, it will come to pass. Since God exists outside of time and cannot lie, purpose equals fulfillment.Anyway I also wrote
#234
Waiting for everyones approval
Or whatever.
By persistently claiming the victory of Jesus' death and resurrection for death to our old-nature qualities and life to our new-nature qualities as in Paul's lists in Colossians 3 (based on the power of Jesus' resurrection in verse one) and Ephesians 4.How do we clean up the uncleanness? How do we acquire godly qualities?
See my reply above this one.How do we clean up the uncleanness? How do we acquire godly qualities?