I'm going to share something that God just revealed to me about a week ago. It had been tossing around inside me and I'd just not felt settled about it until God brought the question to the forefront of my mind and then proceeded to explain it to me. Here goes:
I used to know a prophet (someone who operates regularly in the gift of prophecy and had that as part of his calling). Of course he also had speaking in tongues, and often spoke in tongues
out loud and in a way that was subsequently interpreted (which has MUCH in common with prophecy) so that's why I'm bringing this up here.
He was often sent into other churches as God would send him with messages to those churches, or to his children within those churches. And sometimes he would tell us what happened.
In one instance he was sent into a church and instead of prophesying, God had him speak a message aloud in tongues. USUALLY, God would provide the interpretation either through himself or some other in the church but on this occasion no audible interpretation followed. Now some would already be saying "If God didn't provide an interpretation, he should have kept his mouth SHUT" But he was wise enough to obey what God told him to do and trust God to take care of the rest. So that's why he was obedient.
After the service, at least 3 individuals approached him, saying that as he was speaking, God was giving them the interpretation internally and telling them to gather their families and get out of that church. So there was no infraction against 1 Corinthians 14:28 which says:
But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.1 Corinthians 14:28 KJV
However... the part that I was questioning was contained in verse 2:
"For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries." - 1 Corinthians 14:2 KJV
I thought "Isn't he speaking unto the
'men' (individuals) who heard the message and received the meaning?".
If you want to be accurate about it ...and I do... the answer is "No. He that speaketh in an unknown tongue is still NOT speaking to man, but unto God". In this particular case (as it also is in the case where audible interpretations are given) the unknown tongues was spoken to the Spirit (Holy Ghost, GOD)
within them and GOD (the Spirit
within them, the Holy Ghost, God) provided the interpretation to their understanding.
I thought that was kinda cool.
Love in Jesus,
Kelby