FreeGrace2 said:
Let's just cut to the chase.
Do you think the ones who left lost salvation or never had salvation?
According to john, they WERE NEVER OF US. He did not say they were of us, and now are not a part part us.
You complain about having a discussion with me yet you won't even answer a rather simple and straightforward question.
Did the leavers lose salvation or never had it? This is not a difficult question. Or do you just not know?
He also did not say they left God. or they depasrted from God
Doesn't answer my question.
I have told you like how many times now they never had salvation. so why are you continually asking the question you already know
After pages and pages, it's hard to keep track of everyone's views. Why is answering questions so hard for you?
That's why I finally posted my "cut to the chase". And even your initial answer to my question was vague.
But thanks for finally clarifying.
I question why unbelievers would be IN a 1st Century church. Back then, this was the general view of the population:
1 Cor 1-
22 Jews demand signs and Greeks look for wisdom,
23 but we preach Christ crucified: a
stumbling block to Jews and
foolishness to Gentiles
So, other than "false brothers" who were infiltrating churches, why would unbelievers be interested in attending them?
Gal 2:4 - And that because of false brethren unawares brought in,
who came in privily to spy out our liberty which we have in Christ Jesus, that they might bring us into bondage
And John didn't describe the leavers as "false brothers".
In my opinion, John could have referred to either unbelievers who were initially curious about the church but finally left, or believers who got into false doctrine, which I've proved from Acts 15.
So, what's the problem? It could be either or both. That would make us both correct.
