Perfect answer! I 100% agree with you, Satan is a god, as you said, he just isn't the God who is God (namely the 'one God') as you said. However, as you stated and I highlighted before, that still means Satan is a type of GOD according to scripture, you yourself said it in your statement, you said
"Satan is a god", that all I've been expressing this whole time and yet have been getting to much hate for it, Satan is a god, or as the verse says "THE GOD of this world", he simply is not the 'one God'.
You have nowhere answered my question by your above paragraph, if it does then please explain how it does. My question that still remains answered:
Was Moses "God to Pharaoh" according to Exo 7:1?
Yes they are, even the writer of Hebrews makes it clear they are. In psalms 8:5 is states
"You have made them a little lower than the elohim and crowned them with glory and honor", the term elohim in Hebrew means "GOD", the writer of Hebrew 2:7 quotes Psalms 8:5, notice how he translates is:
(Hebrews 2:7) You made him a little lower than angelous; you crowned him with glory and honor, and appointed him over the works of your hands.
The word "angelous" is the Greek word for angels, which means the writer of Hebrews read and knew the term 'elohim' was used in Psalms 8:5 but understood it to be in reference to angels, hence the reason why he used the word 'angel' and not elohim in Ps 8:5, its also the reason why many bibles render the term 'Elohim' in Psalms 8:5 as 'angels'. So by you saying "Angels aren't called Elohim/GODS" you are disagreeing with many translators and even the inspired writer of Hebrews.
Nowhere have I expressed that when other beings are called GOD who are not the 'one God' that they themselves are the 'one God' by being referred by the term GOD. I've always maintained the bible can and does use the term God with different sense at times, it having a secondary lesser sense when applied to people who are not the 'one God'. You also nowhere answered my quesiton but just highlighted that the people Jesus were speaking to were not the 'one God', which I myself also believe. So my question still remains,
Did Jesus tell some Jews "you are gods" in John 10:34?
No, he clearly differentiates between "so-called gods", and the "many gods and many lords", the text says "For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth as indeed there are many "gods" and many "lords", yet for us there is but one God, the Father", my question was in relation to when he mentioned the "many gods" and not the "so-called gods". Thus, my question remains unanswered, here it is again if you want to answer it this time, Did Paul state there are "many gods" in 1 Cor 8:5?
No, Jesus did not say he and the Father were
one God, he simply said he and the Father were one, there was nothing about being one in deity mentioned in the verse. In fact, John 17:20,21 also highlights that followers of Christ be one 'just as' he and the Father are one, so John 10:30 definitely cannot be in relation to one in deity, or else followers of christ are also God since they are one with them 'just as' they are one.
(John 17:21,22) "..that they [my followers] all may be one, as You, Father, are in Me, and I in You; that they also may be one in Us, that the world may believe that You sent Me.."