@eternally-gratefull
Question 7:
Given:
John 14:21 “He that hath My commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth Me: and he that loveth Me shall be loved of My Father… 23 If a man loves Me, he will keep My words: and My Father will love him”
1 John 4:19 We love, because He first loved us.
Since:
1) God only loves the obedient only - verse 21 says “[they] shall be loved by the father” it indicates Christians (the elect) only
2) God only loves those that love Him - verse 21
3) Only those who obey God love God - verse 23 and they love because God loved them first (ver. 1 John 4:19)
We can conclude that some undefined measurement of obedience (love) must be present in all believers to be loved by God who only loves Christians.
…………. What is wrong with the logic of question 7
What is the measurement?
If there must be a measurement, then you must define it. Otherwise we could never know we have eternal life. And again, John said he wrote things so we can KNOW we have it.
My Response: Poorly constructed question on my part. Withdrawn
Question 8:
Can you give examples of biblical person's name(s) we know went to hell (someone nit-picked and said people not in hell yet .. you get what I mean) that God said He loved. Admittedly, no examples do not prove my point but is circumstantial evidence, but is strong evidence for yours.
Do not understand question. You will need more than this. A parent loves a child. But if the child acts up. The parent still punishes the child.
My Response: Well, if you could give a biblical reference to someone we know is in hell that God says He loves specifically, then I would cede that to be strong evidence that God loves everyone without exception. Example: Cain I loved … or Judas Iscariot I love you. I grant that a lack of such a statement does not prove my point and is only circumstantial. It would be strong evidence for your contention though IMO. (aside DanielT understood my intention)
Question 9:
Give examples of biblical person's name(s) we know went to heaven that God said He hated or loathed or was repulsed by. Admittedly, no examples do not prove my point but is circumstantial evidence, but is strong evidence for yours.
Again, Do not see where this relates
My Response: Similar logic to Question 8
Question 10:
Assuming God loves everyone, one assume God would not favor any group of people and therefore each group would be represented in heaven by relatively proportional numbers. Assuming you agree with this statement … Why do we see such disproportionality. Consider: 1 Corinthians 1:26 Brothers, consider the time of your calling: Not many of you were wise by human standards; not many were powerful; not many were of noble birth. 27 But God chose the foolish things of the world to shame the wise; God chose the weak things of the world to shame the strong.
Straight and narrow gate to god, and few enter in
Wide gate to destruction. MANY enter in.
Your question again makes no sense
My Response: Well, the question uses empirical observation to determine the plausibility of the statement that GOD LOVES EVERYONE.
Premise1: God loves everyone that same amount
Premise2: God gives everyone the same opportunity to be saved
Conclusion: We should observe roughly the same proportions of salvation among different groups of people
Example: I pick of 1,000 Chinese and 1,000 Israelites and 1,000 babies in 200 B.C. If God (1) shows no favoritism and (2) loves everyone the same amount … then roughly the same number of people from each group will be in heaven.
Now, for these groups in the year 200 B.C. we can ‘guess’ how many people are in heaven.
So, these observations fit my definition of love as God choses who goes to heaven. This equivalent to who he loves: those that are most lovely in His sight.
We should see similar numbers saved in all 3 groups if God loves everyone without exception the same amount; yet, we don’t. Why is that? Is God showing favoritism? Why does God not give the people of these 3 groups equal opportunity if He loves everyone without exception the same???
Enjoyed the conversation. Thanks for taking the time to answer my queries. That was thoughtful of you.
Question 7:
Given:
John 14:21 “He that hath My commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth Me: and he that loveth Me shall be loved of My Father… 23 If a man loves Me, he will keep My words: and My Father will love him”
1 John 4:19 We love, because He first loved us.
Since:
1) God only loves the obedient only - verse 21 says “[they] shall be loved by the father” it indicates Christians (the elect) only
2) God only loves those that love Him - verse 21
3) Only those who obey God love God - verse 23 and they love because God loved them first (ver. 1 John 4:19)
We can conclude that some undefined measurement of obedience (love) must be present in all believers to be loved by God who only loves Christians.
…………. What is wrong with the logic of question 7
What is the measurement?
If there must be a measurement, then you must define it. Otherwise we could never know we have eternal life. And again, John said he wrote things so we can KNOW we have it.
My Response: Poorly constructed question on my part. Withdrawn
Question 8:
Can you give examples of biblical person's name(s) we know went to hell (someone nit-picked and said people not in hell yet .. you get what I mean) that God said He loved. Admittedly, no examples do not prove my point but is circumstantial evidence, but is strong evidence for yours.
Do not understand question. You will need more than this. A parent loves a child. But if the child acts up. The parent still punishes the child.
My Response: Well, if you could give a biblical reference to someone we know is in hell that God says He loves specifically, then I would cede that to be strong evidence that God loves everyone without exception. Example: Cain I loved … or Judas Iscariot I love you. I grant that a lack of such a statement does not prove my point and is only circumstantial. It would be strong evidence for your contention though IMO. (aside DanielT understood my intention)
Question 9:
Give examples of biblical person's name(s) we know went to heaven that God said He hated or loathed or was repulsed by. Admittedly, no examples do not prove my point but is circumstantial evidence, but is strong evidence for yours.
Again, Do not see where this relates
My Response: Similar logic to Question 8
Question 10:
Assuming God loves everyone, one assume God would not favor any group of people and therefore each group would be represented in heaven by relatively proportional numbers. Assuming you agree with this statement … Why do we see such disproportionality. Consider: 1 Corinthians 1:26 Brothers, consider the time of your calling: Not many of you were wise by human standards; not many were powerful; not many were of noble birth. 27 But God chose the foolish things of the world to shame the wise; God chose the weak things of the world to shame the strong.
Straight and narrow gate to god, and few enter in
Wide gate to destruction. MANY enter in.
Your question again makes no sense
My Response: Well, the question uses empirical observation to determine the plausibility of the statement that GOD LOVES EVERYONE.
Premise1: God loves everyone that same amount
Premise2: God gives everyone the same opportunity to be saved
Conclusion: We should observe roughly the same proportions of salvation among different groups of people
Example: I pick of 1,000 Chinese and 1,000 Israelites and 1,000 babies in 200 B.C. If God (1) shows no favoritism and (2) loves everyone the same amount … then roughly the same number of people from each group will be in heaven.
Now, for these groups in the year 200 B.C. we can ‘guess’ how many people are in heaven.
- 1,000 Chinese - 0 are in heaven (assume none heard the gospel so none saved … lost and without hope)
- 1,000 Israelites – 50 are in heaven (I have little idea of exact number… God seems to save a remnant .. served my purpose for the demo … chosen people of God in 200 B.C.)
- 1,000 babies – 100% in heaven (assumes all babies go to heaven)
So, these observations fit my definition of love as God choses who goes to heaven. This equivalent to who he loves: those that are most lovely in His sight.
We should see similar numbers saved in all 3 groups if God loves everyone without exception the same amount; yet, we don’t. Why is that? Is God showing favoritism? Why does God not give the people of these 3 groups equal opportunity if He loves everyone without exception the same???
Enjoyed the conversation. Thanks for taking the time to answer my queries. That was thoughtful of you.