I know you can't see this, but the purpose of Jacobs trouble was to separate the wheat from the chaff. The wheat, Christ gathered into his barn, the church. The chaff, he burnt in the fire of AD 70.
The WHOLE end times scenario in the bible is about the END OF ISRAEL, […]
I get what you are saying. Consider this: I made a post showing how "the 144,000" are "firstfruit" of the "WHEAT harvest" (the
SECOND of
TWO mentions of "firstfruit"
in Leviticus 23... this one being
in v.17).
This then would go into the "IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" time-period I mentioned in my first post in this thread; where I am endeavoring to show that the "IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" time-period is
kicked off by:
-- the
INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR; 1Th5:
2-3]" which is parallel (equal to)
SEAL #1 (Matt24:
4/Mk13:
5 "G5100 -
tis - 'A CERTAIN ONE' ['a certain one'
bringing deception]"), which is
also the ARRIVAL of "the Day of the Lord" time-period Paul covers in 1 and 2Th... and the SEQUENCE issues in BOTH of those passages are the same: our Rapture PRECEDES "the ARRIVAL of "the DOTL" time period (with its "man of sin" [and ALL he will do] and its "judgments" unfolding).
My thought is, that your view makes "the 144,000" to have existed in the first century (I'm guessing "symbolically" somehow); but this seems to disregard the SEQUENCE issues shown to exist between the Olivet Discourse texts:
Do you agree that Matt24:4-8 EQUALS Mk13:5-8 EQUALS Lk21:8-11, and then that v.12 says, "BUT BEFORE ALL THESE" (but BEFORE all these BEGINNING of birth PANGS, just listed) that the 70ad events of vv.12-24a MUST take place??
This means that the BoBPs come AFTER the 70ad events. How is that explained in your view??