The word of God was not perfect until the NT was given by inspiration of God.
is this statement biblical? please explain why it is or not using the word of God to support your position.
Thank you.
I'm not sure what is at root of the question, so please forgive me if I miss the mark of what the bottom line is, but I will put a few things here that come to mind (a quote and then a couple more scriptures following that):
1) I agree with what Dr Paul Martin Henebury says here (in his article called "
40 Reasons For Not Reinterpreting the OT By the NT") --
[quoting]
"6. If the OT cannot be interpreted without the NT then what it says on its own account cannot be trusted, as it could well be a “type,” or even part of an obtuse redemptive state of affairs to be alluded to and reinterpreted by the NT.
"7. Thus, it would mean the seeming clear predictions about the Coming One in the OT could not be relied upon to present anything but a typological/symbolic picture which would need deciphering by the NT. The most clearly expressed promises of God in the OT (e.g.
Jer. 31:31f.;
33:15-26;
Ezek. 40-48;
Zech. 14:16-21) would be vulnerable to being eventually turned into types and shadows.
"8. It would excuse anyone (e.g. the scribes in
Jn. 5:35f.) for not accepting Jesus’ claims based on OT prophecies – since those prophecies required the NT to reinterpret them. Therefore, the Lord’s reprimand of the scribes in the context would have been unreasonable."
[end quoting;
https://sharperiron.org/article/forty-reasons-for-not-reinterpreting-ot-nt-first-twenty ]
2) Jesus told His disciples in
John 16:12-15, "
I have YET MANY THINGS to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now. Howbeit, when He, the Spirit of truth, is come, He will guide you into all the truth..." (and I believe this is what 1Cor2:9-
10,
12,16
b means, when I believe is speaking of the NT revelation/i.e.what we see written in our NT, the epistles, etc...); Some things it was necessary to be kept "hidden in God"/unrevealed/undisclosed until AFTER His crucifixion (1Cor2:7-8)
3) Colossians 1:25 says:
Berean Literal Bible
"of which I [Paul] became a minister
according to the administration of God having been given me toward you,
to complete [G4137 - plērōsai / pléroó ] the word of God,"
https://biblehub.com/text/colossians/1-25.htm
4) Matthew 22:7-8's SEQUENCE (with v.7 being the 70ad events [see also Lk21:23,20]; and then v.8 being the "
THEN SAITH HE to his servants..." which necessarily came AFTER the 70ad events, and which I believe correlates with the LATER 95ad writings in "[The] Revelation of Jesus Christ, which GOD GAVE UNTO HIM [unto Jesus], TO SHEW UNTO His servants [see 7:3 re: the 144,000] things which must come to pass [the 4:1/1:19c FUTURE aspects of the Book] IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]…" (not things which would unfold over the course of some 2000 yrs, not something that would begin to unfold immediately); I believe this Book also covers what He didn't previously "know [
perfect tense]" DURING His earthly ministry
(Matt24:36 / Mk13:32 "no man knoweth [
perfect tense; and not even Jesus, at the time]," I believe after His resurrection/ascension that He
now knows perfectly, and
later [95ad] supplied FURTHER INFORMATION regarding THIS Subject (which pertains to His Second Coming
to the earth, FOR the promised and prophesied EARTHLY Millennial Kingdom [the Subject not being our Rapture, here])--consequently, it is not correct to say "no one [STILL] knows" (Jesus does, and I believe has disclosed
further information on THAT Subject in The Revelation), nor to say "no one CAN [or WILL] ever know" (this is not what the "
perfect tense" is conveying), people who will be existing during the tribulation years (that this pertains to) CAN, and I believe SHOULD know, IF they will but heed His Word (and/or those who will be bringing it, at the time [this is AFTER our "Rapture/Departure" and I believe the 144,000 will be among those (the "WISE [of Israel]" Dan12:1-4,10) who 'WILL UNDERSTAND" and be carrying forth that very specific message, Matt24:14[26:13] at that time] )