do you agree with this comment is it Biblical or not?

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PS

Senior Member
Jan 11, 2013
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#21
The many themes in scripture from Genesis to Revelation come together in one united whole, evidence of one author inspiring the several writers.
 

Lanolin

Well-known member
Dec 15, 2018
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#22
Is this a theology exam question?

How many marks is it worth. Isn't asking us cheating?
 

Tinkerbell725

Senior Member
Jul 19, 2014
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Philippines Age 40
#23
2 Timothy 3:16 King James Version (KJV)
16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

Psalm 12:6 King James Version (KJV)
6 The words of the Lord are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.
 

PS

Senior Member
Jan 11, 2013
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#24
The Spirit of the LORD spake by me, and his word was in my tongue. (2Sa 23:2)

Jesus saith unto them, Did ye never read in the scriptures, The stone which the builders rejected, the same is become the head of the corner: this is the Lord’s doing, and it is marvellous in our eyes? (Mat 21:42)

But as touching the resurrection of the dead, have ye not read that which was spoken unto you by God, saying, I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? God is not the God of the dead, but of the living. Mat 22:31

But how then shall the scriptures be fulfilled, that thus it must be? Matthew 26:24

But all this was done, that the scriptures of the prophets might be fulfilled. Then all the disciples forsook him, and fled. (Mat 26:54)

And Jesus answering said unto them, Do ye not therefore err, because ye know not the scriptures, neither the power of God? (Mat 26:56)

Men and brethren, this scripture must needs have been fulfilled, which the Holy Ghost by the mouth of David spake before concerning Judas, which was guide to them that took Jesus. (Mar 12:24)

And when they agreed not among themselves, they departed, after that Paul had spoken one word, Well spake the Holy Ghost by Esaias the prophet unto our fathers, (Act 1:16)

Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God. (Act 28:25)

For whatsoever things were written aforetime were written for our learning, that we through patience and comfort of the scriptures might have hope. (Rom 3:2)

And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed. (Gal 3:8)

Wherefore (as the Holy Ghost saith, To day if ye will hear his voice, (Heb 3:7)

For the word of God is quick, and powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword, piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of the joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart. Hebrews 4:12

We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts: Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost. 2Pe 1:19-21

The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD is sure, making wise the simple. The statutes of the LORD are right, rejoicing the heart: the commandment of the LORD is pure, enlightening the eyes. Psa 19:7-8

Out of heaven he made thee to hear his voice, that he might instruct thee: and upon earth he shewed thee his great fire; and thou heardest his words out of the midst of the fire. Deu 4:36

This man was instructed in the way of the Lord; and being fervent in the spirit, he spake and taught diligently the things of the Lord, knowing only the baptism of John. (Act 18:25)
 

Adstar

Senior Member
Jul 24, 2016
7,577
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#25
The word of God was not perfect until the NT was given by inspiration of God.

is this statement biblical? please explain why it is or not using the word of God to support your position.

Thank you.[/QUOTE
I do not agree with that statement..

The statement i would agree with is:: The Word of God was not complete until the NT was given by Inspiration of God..
 

NayborBear

Banned Serpent Seed Heresy
#26
The new testament fulfilled the old testament, by crucifixion

The only thing that is incomplete is human understanding of the old testament, and that new testament is when Jesus died in the cross
No? The N.T. did not fulfill the O.T.
Jesus did fulfill the prophecy of His being sent, that our Father declared on more then several occasions through His Humble Servants the Prophets in the O.T.

If ya read the later chapters of Ezekiel, you should notice that in the millionium (sp)? Not much, if any description/s of the Temple, is changed from the way our Father had instructed Moses in setting up His Temple in the O.T.

Having said that? I'll agree with your second statement! "The only thing that is incomplete is human understanding of the old testament."
 

Melach

Well-known member
Mar 28, 2019
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#27
the Word of God is Jesus isnt it? john 1:1

no i believe Word has always been and will be perfect.
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#28
I would say that the Word of God as it pertains to scripture was incomplete rather than imperfect. In fact, it is still incomplete because it is not yet known what the 7 Thunders said to John but told him not to write, or what Paul was told not to report during his vision in heaven or wherever it took place. Then there is the matter of what Jesus wrote on the ground when the woman caught in adultery was brought before Him. The complete Word of God will not contradict the scripture already recorded but may change the dynamic on how various passages are truly interpreted .
Can we say we have all we need to have to be made complete children of God. Or do we need more scripture to help us?
 

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
10,887
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#29
The word of God was not perfect until the NT was given by inspiration of God.

is this statement biblical? please explain why it is or not using the word of God to support your position.

Thank you.
I'm not sure what is at root of the question, so please forgive me if I miss the mark of what the bottom line is, but I will put a few things here that come to mind (a quote and then a couple more scriptures following that):

1) I agree with what Dr Paul Martin Henebury says here (in his article called "40 Reasons For Not Reinterpreting the OT By the NT") --

[quoting]

"6. If the OT cannot be interpreted without the NT then what it says on its own account cannot be trusted, as it could well be a “type,” or even part of an obtuse redemptive state of affairs to be alluded to and reinterpreted by the NT.

"7. Thus, it would mean the seeming clear predictions about the Coming One in the OT could not be relied upon to present anything but a typological/symbolic picture which would need deciphering by the NT. The most clearly expressed promises of God in the OT (e.g. Jer. 31:31f.; 33:15-26; Ezek. 40-48; Zech. 14:16-21) would be vulnerable to being eventually turned into types and shadows.

"8. It would excuse anyone (e.g. the scribes in Jn. 5:35f.) for not accepting Jesus’ claims based on OT prophecies – since those prophecies required the NT to reinterpret them. Therefore, the Lord’s reprimand of the scribes in the context would have been unreasonable."

[end quoting; https://sharperiron.org/article/forty-reasons-for-not-reinterpreting-ot-nt-first-twenty ]


2) Jesus told His disciples in John 16:12-15, "I have YET MANY THINGS to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now. Howbeit, when He, the Spirit of truth, is come, He will guide you into all the truth..." (and I believe this is what 1Cor2:9-10,12,16b means, when I believe is speaking of the NT revelation/i.e.what we see written in our NT, the epistles, etc...); Some things it was necessary to be kept "hidden in God"/unrevealed/undisclosed until AFTER His crucifixion (1Cor2:7-8)


3) Colossians 1:25 says:

Berean Literal Bible
"of which I [Paul] became a minister according to the administration of God having been given me toward you, to complete [G4137 - plērōsai / pléroó ] the word of God,"

https://biblehub.com/text/colossians/1-25.htm


4) Matthew 22:7-8's SEQUENCE (with v.7 being the 70ad events [see also Lk21:23,20]; and then v.8 being the "THEN SAITH HE to his servants..." which necessarily came AFTER the 70ad events, and which I believe correlates with the LATER 95ad writings in "[The] Revelation of Jesus Christ, which GOD GAVE UNTO HIM [unto Jesus], TO SHEW UNTO His servants [see 7:3 re: the 144,000] things which must come to pass [the 4:1/1:19c FUTURE aspects of the Book] IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]…" (not things which would unfold over the course of some 2000 yrs, not something that would begin to unfold immediately); I believe this Book also covers what He didn't previously "know [perfect tense]" DURING His earthly ministry (Matt24:36 / Mk13:32 "no man knoweth [perfect tense; and not even Jesus, at the time]," I believe after His resurrection/ascension that He now knows perfectly, and later [95ad] supplied FURTHER INFORMATION regarding THIS Subject (which pertains to His Second Coming to the earth, FOR the promised and prophesied EARTHLY Millennial Kingdom [the Subject not being our Rapture, here])--consequently, it is not correct to say "no one [STILL] knows" (Jesus does, and I believe has disclosed further information on THAT Subject in The Revelation), nor to say "no one CAN [or WILL] ever know" (this is not what the "perfect tense" is conveying), people who will be existing during the tribulation years (that this pertains to) CAN, and I believe SHOULD know, IF they will but heed His Word (and/or those who will be bringing it, at the time [this is AFTER our "Rapture/Departure" and I believe the 144,000 will be among those (the "WISE [of Israel]" Dan12:1-4,10) who 'WILL UNDERSTAND" and be carrying forth that very specific message, Matt24:14[26:13] at that time] )
 

Mem

Senior Member
Sep 23, 2014
7,121
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#30
The first Book of the OT is Bereshit is written by Moses [deliverer: from the waters] is Bereshit (in [the] beginning)
Genesis 3:3 but of the fruit of the tree in the midst of the garden, God hath said, 'Ye shall not eat of it, neither shall ye touch it, lest ye die.'

The fourth gospel is John [Yah is gracious, and *four is symbolic of a door]
John 3:3 Jesus replied, "Truly, Truly, I tell you, no one can enter the kingdom of God unless he is born again.

All of scripture is so especially perfect :)
 
Jul 23, 2018
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#31
perhaps,
can you provide scripture to support the statement?

but when you add this to it you get more understanding of the Position:

the apostles only had the OT from which to preach Christ until the NT was completed.


is this statement true and please support by scripture
Yes because paul preached using the scriptures
 
Apr 3, 2019
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#32
The word of God was not perfect until the NT was given by inspiration of God.

is this statement biblical? please explain why it is or not using the word of God to support your position.

Thank you.
Jesus ministry as written in NT is the fulfillment of the old testament and Paul specifically only preached what was "in accordance with the Law and that is written in the Prophets":

(Acts 24:14 But this I admit to you, that according to the Way which they call a sect I do serve the God of our fathers, believing everything that is in accordance with the Law and that is written in the Prophets)
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
9,144
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#33
Seems like a lot of todo over nothing. What does the scripture say about it.
"All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for instruction, for conviction, for correction, and for training in righteousness." 2 Timothy 3:16. "All scripture" means ALL scripture, does it not? That would seem to settle the question.
 

Dan_473

Senior Member
Mar 11, 2014
9,054
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#34
The word of God was not perfect until the NT was given by inspiration of God.

is this statement biblical? please explain why it is or not using the word of God to support your position.

Thank you.
The word of God was always perfect in the skies, I believe it says in Psalms.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
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#35
A lot of good and interesting responses.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
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#36
Ok, I have another question for you all.

is it true that The apostles had only the OT from which to preach Christ?

Thank you for your participation
 
S

Scribe

Guest
#37
The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD is sure, making wise the simple. (Ps 19:7)



6 The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. 7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation forever. (Psalm 12:6-7, KJV)
 

Dan_473

Senior Member
Mar 11, 2014
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#38
Ok, I have another question for you all.

is it true that The apostles had only the OT from which to preach Christ?

Thank you for your participation
They could use the Hebrew, if they could read Hebrew. Or they could use the Greek translation of the OT.

Also at the time of the apostles, I don't think which books were in the old testament was a settled question.
 

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
10,887
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#39
Ok, I have another question for you all.

is it true that The apostles had only the OT from which to preach Christ?

Thank you for your participation
Depends somewhat on how you are defining the OT (do you mean, everything before the gospels, or do you mean everything before His "death"?) Do you mean, could the apostles preach anything from what they experienced when Jesus walked this earth? Do you mean, could Paul have received revelation directly from the risen and ascended/exalted Christ, to disclose (in written form, what we see now in the epistles)? I'm not sure which you might be thinking... But here's something I'd posted awhile back...

for your consideration:

[quoting]

Acts 3:21 [speaking to "ye men of Israel," v.12 (unsaved persons as noted in v.13-15,17,19)] then states: "whom indeed it behooves heaven to receive until the times of restoration of all things of which God spoke by the mouth of His holy prophets from the age." [in contrast to that which He had theretofore kept "hidden in God"/was as yet undisclosed]

In vv.13 and 26 the phrase "His Servant Jesus" (they had not been expecting the "suffering servant" aspects of His Person, only the "reigning-in-power King" aspects, though both aspects had been prophesied in the OT); chpt 3's point is Peter telling them they'd overlooked the former of these two aspects, and thus had a hand (themselves) in fulfilling that very thing, vv.13-15, but this was not saying that "everything" was at this point in time (the time of Acts 3) fully fulfilled; and...

...there are TWO "raise" senses spoken of in Acts 3... v.15 speaking of His being "raised from the dead," but the other being "raised" to a position of prominence BEFORE His death (that is, to the position of 'a Prophet like unto Moses'...'raise up unto you of your brethren like unto me [/Moses]; him shall ye hear in all things whatsoever he shall say unto you' and 'UNTO YOU FIRST God, having raised up [to a position of prominence BEFORE His death] His Servant Jesus, SENT him to bless you, in turning away every one of you from his iniquities'). The "ALL things which God spoke by the mouth of His holy prophets" (meaning, OT prophecies) have not yet been fully fulfilled, but remain for a yet-future time (and I believe Joel is one such prophecy).

The word "King" is only used [re: Jesus] TWO times in all of the epistles, and both of them are "future" [see Rev19:15b still speaking in "future tense"], 1Tim6:15 being one of those, says, "which IN HIS TIMES He SHALL SHEW [openly manifest], who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords"

[end quoting]

____________

I think that Ephesians 3:5 is something to consider along with this:

"5 Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit"... this phrase [used together like this] "apostles and prophets" can only mean "the NT apostles and prophets"
 
Mar 28, 2016
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#40
perhaps,
can you provide scripture to support the statement?

but when you add this to it you get more understanding of the Position:

the apostles only had the OT from which to preach Christ until the NT was completed.


is this statement true and please support by scripture
I would think the apostles, disciples like the noble Berean's that were moved by the Spirit of Christ in them to search out the matter as their daily bread. New prophecy was still available at that time period adding to giving us more adequate understanding to strengthen faith.

Seeing there were many false prophets false apostles crying out. "Buy my idea" or another.... claim it fame it.. Step right up ring the bell.

The Holy Spirit worked in all the saints to help them continue to walk by faith as it does with us .We will not be affected by the poison of those who say "thus says the Lord I had a dream or a heard a sound or had a out of body experience. . What we had in part up until the last book of prophecy, Revelation today the possibility of adding more is sealed to the end of time with 7 seals we have the perfect.

Enough to walk by faith? Or as in Luke .When he comes on the last day will he find faith?????