In regards to Oneness - NO definitely not. Just Pentecostal ... if you have the indwelling Holy Spirit then you have both the
Father and the Son.
The scriptures clearly teach us in Mark 16, Acts and the epistles that speaking in tongues is praying in the Spirit.
For example: Acts 8:
12 But when they believed Philip preaching the things concerning the kingdom of God, and the name of Jesus Christ,
they were baptized, both men and women.
13 Then Simon himself believed also: and when he was baptized, he continued with Philip, and wondered, beholding the
miracles and signs which were done.
14 Now when the apostles which were at Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent unto them
Peter and John:
15 Who, when they were come down, prayed for them, that they might receive the Holy Ghost:
16 (For as yet he was fallen upon none of them: only they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.)
17 Then laid they their hands on them, and they received the Holy Ghost.
Here is the first teaching that disciples are not automatically baptized in the Holy Spirit; and also that there is a
distinct sign (evidence) to confirm baptism of the Holy Spirit in order to avoid competing claims for such, and the confusion
that would inevitably lead to a multitude of gospels.
If you will notice there in Acts 8, there is no reference to speaking in tongues. Pentecostals assume it happened because of assuming the initial evidence doctrine.
Let's consider the evidence for the initial evidence doctrine. There are different versions of it. One is that whenever someone is baptized with the Holy Ghost (which is seen as an experience subsequent to salvation), he or she will speak in tongues. Another is that the individual is able to speak in tongues, but may not necessarily do so.
Really we have one case where they all spake in tongues, Acts 2. In another case, Acts 19, they spake in tongues and prophesied.
6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spoke with tongues, and prophesied.
Acts 19:
If all of them spoke in tongues and half of them prophesied, the way it is worded would be true. If they all prophesied and half of them spoke in tongues, the wording of the passage would be true. if half spoke in tongues and half prophesied, it would be true. If representatives of the group spoke in tongues and prophesied it would be true. Consider that when Mary of Bethany anointed Jesus with precious ointment 'they' said why wasn't it sold and given to the poor. Another gospel specifies that it was Judas Iscariot who uttered the words.
In Acts 10, they spoke in tongues and magnified God. If half spoke in tongues and half magnified God in a commonly understood language, the wording of the passage could describe that situation, too.
So there was one occasion where we know they all spoke in tongues. There is also how the phrases are used, using filled with the Spirit, baptized with the Spirit, receive the Spirit. Zecharias was filled with the Spirit and prophesied. Paul says to be filled with the Spirit, speaking to yourselves in psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs. Speaking in tongues is not the only type of utterance the Bible associates with being filled with the Spirit.
If we applied the same sort of reasoning to other things, then couldn't we come up with some strange doctrine.
Compare the argument for the initial evidence doctrine with the argument for a doctrine that everyone who goes to Mt. Sinai hears the audible voice of God.
Argument 1.
-- In Acts 2, those who were baptized with the Holy Ghost spoke in tongues.
-- In Acts 10, those who were baptized with the Holy Ghost spoke in tongues.
-- In Acts 19, those who were baptized with the Holy Ghost spoke in tongues.
Conclusion--everyone who is baptized with the Holy Ghost speaks in tongues....true or false?
Argument 2.
--Moses went to Mt. Sinai and heard the audible voice of God.
--The nation of Israel went to Mt. Sinai and heard the audible voice of God.
--Elijah went to Mt. Sinai and heard the audible voice of God.
Conclusion--everyone who goes to Mt. Sinai hears the audible voice of God....true or false?
Do you think every tourist who goes to Mt. Sinai is going to hear God? If that's the wrong mountain, and it's really another one, does any visitor to that mountain hear an audible voice? If you reject argument 2, why would you accept argument 1?
Looking through Acts, it sure seems pretty normal that someone who is baptized with the Holy Spirit may speak in tongues. I experienced that, too. But there weren't people present recognizing the language like in Acts 2. I don't think that's necessary for it to be speaking in tongues because apparently that wasn't happening in Corinth and tongues were interpreted by means of a gift of the Spirit.
Do you believe that those who have not spoken in tongues do not have the seal of the Spirit or the earnest of the Spirit? What about someone who exhibits fruit of the Spirit? What about people who God uses to heal who do not speak in tongues. I have a friend who has never spoken in tongues who interprets tongues. Sometimes someone else will beat him to the punch and give the same interpretation he was going to give.