I knew it; you can't explain nothing.
The closest you came was somehow claiming that Paul and therefore the Holy spirit contradicted, but you haven't explained how.
My thoughts are very simple- based on Paul's teaching of our conduct in church, women in the 1st century never spoke in tongues in the church. Today women being the majority in the churches, are speaking in tongues. Therefore my conclusion based on this fact and many others, is that the tongues today are fake.
And i supported my thoughts by quoting:
1 Cor 14:
34 Women f should remain silent in the churches.
They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the law says.
35If they want to inquire about something, they should ask their own husbands at home;
for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church. g
36Or did the word of God originate with you? Or are you the only people it has reached?
37If anyone thinks they are a prophet or otherwise gifted by the Spirit, let them acknowledge that what I am writing to you
is the Lord’s command.
38But if anyone ignores this, they will themselves be ignored.
1 Cor 14 is about use of tongues in the church and there's no way Paul would throw that directive at women when it meant nothing. He even says it is the Lords command.
And:
1 Tim 2:
8Therefore I want the men everywhere to pray, lifting up holy hands without anger or disputing.
9I also want the women to dress modestly, with decency and propriety, adorning themselves, not with elaborate hairstyles or gold or pearls or expensive clothes,
10but with good deeds, appropriate for women who profess to worship God.
11A woman a should learn in quietness and full submission. 12I do not permit a woman to teach or to assume authority over a man;
b she must be quiet.
13For Adam was formed first, then Eve.
14And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner.
15But women
c will be saved through childbearing—if they continue in faith, love and holiness with propriety.
If you are going to argue why you think Paul did not mean what i think he said, you must give an interpretation of the 2 passages, but you quoting something else doesn't explain nothing, it's like saying, let's leave the two passages and dwell on 1 Cor 11. You've also said you'll use the law to explain - i'm still waiting.
you are also trying Joel's prophesy about God pouring His spirit on all flesh so that both men and women prophesy but that doesn't cancel Paul's teaching on our conduct in churches. You simply have to address the two passages.
You are hereby dismissed as having failed to address the passages and therefore did not refute my conclusion, but if you think you can, try.