The context doesn't say what you explained earlier. You said James meant 'accounted to be righteous' with the word 'justified'. Yet I can't see anything that suggests that in the context. So I want you to lay the scripture on the table and show your hermeneutics and how you came to your conclusion.
Who are you referring to?
I will be glad to show what James teaches concerning faith;
The justification according to faith.
Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar? Do you see that faith was working together with his works, and by works faith was made perfect? And the Scripture was fulfilled which says, “Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.” And he was called the friend of God. You see then that a man is justified by works, and not by faith only.
Likewise, was not Rahab the harlot also justified by works when she received the messengers and sent them out another way?
For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also.
James 2:21-26
Key Verse:
Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar?
The “work” James is Referring to is the action of obedience.
It’s called the obedience of faith.
Without this corresponding act of obedience, faith remains dormant, inactive, and dead.
Just as a body without a spirit is dead, so faith without obedience is dead.
JPT