If you wish to build a doctrine, it is imperative that all relevant Scriptures be brought together. What does "in all things" (translated here as "in every respect") mean?
All it means that Jesus of Nazareth, who had descended from Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Judah, and David, was fully human, and a Jew under the Law of Moses, therefore subject to the Law. "His brothers" (or His brethren) means His Jewish brethren, not His immediate family.
It does NOT mean that He could, or would sin, or had a tainted sin nature like every other human being. That is already EXCLUDED by this verse: For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin. (Heb 4:15)
Does this mean that the God-Man was tempted to sin, but would not sin, or does it mean that the God-Man had nothing within Him which could or would respond to temptation? If we believe that Jesus is God (and that is exactly what Scripture says), then we must apply these Scriptures to Him as much as to the Father and the Holy Spirit: Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man... This then is the message which we have heard of him, and declare unto you, that God is light, and in him is no darkness at all. (James 1:13; 1 John 1:5)
Does anyone see the foolishness of those who imagine that Jesus of Nazareth was anything less than the God-Man, and that He could therefore tell the Jews that He was their God -- the "I AM" of Exodus?
All it means that Jesus of Nazareth, who had descended from Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Judah, and David, was fully human, and a Jew under the Law of Moses, therefore subject to the Law. "His brothers" (or His brethren) means His Jewish brethren, not His immediate family.
It does NOT mean that He could, or would sin, or had a tainted sin nature like every other human being. That is already EXCLUDED by this verse: For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin. (Heb 4:15)
Does this mean that the God-Man was tempted to sin, but would not sin, or does it mean that the God-Man had nothing within Him which could or would respond to temptation? If we believe that Jesus is God (and that is exactly what Scripture says), then we must apply these Scriptures to Him as much as to the Father and the Holy Spirit: Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man... This then is the message which we have heard of him, and declare unto you, that God is light, and in him is no darkness at all. (James 1:13; 1 John 1:5)
Does anyone see the foolishness of those who imagine that Jesus of Nazareth was anything less than the God-Man, and that He could therefore tell the Jews that He was their God -- the "I AM" of Exodus?
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