Catholic Heresy (for the record)
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The Catholic Church does claim that Mary created God. That is not what is said by calling her the mother of God. Only that the humanity of Mary was passed to her Son. There is more to being human than a physical body.
While it is true that all are born with original sin. In the case of Mary it is not true. God can and did, because He is all powerful, choose to preserve someone from original sin. This is why the Bible says she is "Full of Grace", because God preserved her from all sin. Such a woman is the only woman fit to carry God Himself in their womb. God would have it no other way.
While it is true that all are born with original sin. In the case of Mary it is not true. God can and did, because He is all powerful, choose to preserve someone from original sin. This is why the Bible says she is "Full of Grace", because God preserved her from all sin. Such a woman is the only woman fit to carry God Himself in their womb. God would have it no other way.
I did not say that James was at odds with Ephesians. Both are in agreement that faith is absolutely neccessary for salvation. And its true that the works are born from faith. But I am not seeing an argument for "faith alone" anywhere in Scripture or by Church theologians before Protestantism came about. I actually think most Protestants don't practice "faith alone" in there christian life, but some reason still think its in the Bible. "Grace alone" is actually the proper understanding.
Hi DallasB78,
The problem with what you are claiming above is that it goes directly against what the word of God as to say about this issue:
"What shall we conclude then? Do we have any advantage? Not at all! For we have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under the power of sin. As it is written: “There is no one righteous, not even one; there is no one who understands; there is no one who seeks God. All have turned away, they have together become worthless; there is no one who does good, not even one.”
"But now apart from the law the righteousness of God has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. This righteousness is given through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference between Jew and Gentile, for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus.
According to the scriptures above, this would include Mary as well. Even Mary called Jesus, Lord. Mary, who is truly a blessed woman, was used by God to bring Christ into the world, but she was a sinner just as everyone else is and therefore, needed salvation. Mary, just like all of the other OT saints, will be resurrected when the time comes. On the other hand, there is no scripture to support any of the claims made regarding Mary by Roman Catholicism, including her being preserved from original sin. For scripture states:
"Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all people, because all sinned--"
Therefore, Mary being a human being is also included as being a sinner. Again, there is nothing in scripture that would exclude her as being free from sin. Please provide the scriptures that support anything about Mary that the RCC has claimed regarding her.
Thanks!
The problem with what you are claiming above is that it goes directly against what the word of God as to say about this issue:
"What shall we conclude then? Do we have any advantage? Not at all! For we have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under the power of sin. As it is written: “There is no one righteous, not even one; there is no one who understands; there is no one who seeks God. All have turned away, they have together become worthless; there is no one who does good, not even one.”
"But now apart from the law the righteousness of God has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. This righteousness is given through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference between Jew and Gentile, for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus.
According to the scriptures above, this would include Mary as well. Even Mary called Jesus, Lord. Mary, who is truly a blessed woman, was used by God to bring Christ into the world, but she was a sinner just as everyone else is and therefore, needed salvation. Mary, just like all of the other OT saints, will be resurrected when the time comes. On the other hand, there is no scripture to support any of the claims made regarding Mary by Roman Catholicism, including her being preserved from original sin. For scripture states:
"Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all people, because all sinned--"
Therefore, Mary being a human being is also included as being a sinner. Again, there is nothing in scripture that would exclude her as being free from sin. Please provide the scriptures that support anything about Mary that the RCC has claimed regarding her.
Thanks!
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I will assume that you meant 'does not'.
It is to many RCs. Your church revels in double meanings.
He was not her Son, only her son. He inherited none of His Godhood as the Son from her. He inherited His manhood as her son.
Not in the case of Jesus. His mind and will were divine.
Of course it is true. Show me one Scripture that says otherwise, and not some verse of indeterminable meaning twisted to say what you want.
He can but He did not. God made a turnip without original sin. But Mary was born of someone with original sin and inherited that sin. He could have made all the world without original sin. But He did not. Why make an exception in Mary' case when it was UNNECESSARY? Jesus was born without original sin because His Spirit and soul were divine and untainted. He did not need a sinless mother. Indeed Scripture goes on to show that Mary sinned precisely because she was born with original sin.
The word means 'engraced'. It is used of all Christians in Eph 1.6. There is no element of 'full' in the original word. This is called twisting the Greek to deceive people. What it actually means is that God had shown unmerited love towards her. He had surrounded her with His grace as He does all Christians.
Rubbish. Show me that in Scripture. That is heresy.
Oh so you speak for God do you? In fact He did have it some other way. He produced sinless Jesus through sinful Mary.
In fact NO WOMAN was or is fit to carry GOD HIMSELF in the womb. It was through His unmerited love that He allowed it.
It is to many RCs. Your church revels in double meanings.
He was not her Son, only her son. He inherited none of His Godhood as the Son from her. He inherited His manhood as her son.
Not in the case of Jesus. His mind and will were divine.
Of course it is true. Show me one Scripture that says otherwise, and not some verse of indeterminable meaning twisted to say what you want.
He can but He did not. God made a turnip without original sin. But Mary was born of someone with original sin and inherited that sin. He could have made all the world without original sin. But He did not. Why make an exception in Mary' case when it was UNNECESSARY? Jesus was born without original sin because His Spirit and soul were divine and untainted. He did not need a sinless mother. Indeed Scripture goes on to show that Mary sinned precisely because she was born with original sin.
The word means 'engraced'. It is used of all Christians in Eph 1.6. There is no element of 'full' in the original word. This is called twisting the Greek to deceive people. What it actually means is that God had shown unmerited love towards her. He had surrounded her with His grace as He does all Christians.
Rubbish. Show me that in Scripture. That is heresy.
Oh so you speak for God do you? In fact He did have it some other way. He produced sinless Jesus through sinful Mary.
In fact NO WOMAN was or is fit to carry GOD HIMSELF in the womb. It was through His unmerited love that He allowed it.
Not only that, some Catholics teach what they will regardless of whether it is in their catechism. I have definitely come across Roman Catholics who teach that you need to go through Mary to get to Jesus. Apparently other Catholics would like to pretend such people do not exist. But then, those same Catholics pretend that Scripture upholds their ex cathedra dogmas, when clearly Scripture does not. There is no getting around the FACT that they elevate their man made traditions above the Word of God.
Because it is God breathed.
2 Tim 3:15 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.
16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.
For the cause of Christ
Roger
2 Tim 3:15 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.
16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.
For the cause of Christ
Roger
Actually its pure rationalization to support a logical belief. True, God doesn't need to tell me anything, but He did through the Church He began 2000 years ago.
Our Lord didn't come to Earth to write a Book, He came to start a Church. It is the Church is who gets to interpret what the Bible actually says and what actually happened. Its not up to individuals. See 2 Peter 1:20
Our Lord didn't come to Earth to write a Book, He came to start a Church. It is the Church is who gets to interpret what the Bible actually says and what actually happened. Its not up to individuals. See 2 Peter 1:20