Again, under what covenant did He do that? You still can't point to that mythical covenant, can you? And it certainly can't be the New Covenant since the New Covenant was not made with all men w/o exception. It was made with Abraham's descendants.
And here again, you can't get your phony gospel straight, can you? If he reconciled the entire world to himself, then the entire world is saved. Didn't God actually reconcile Eve to himself in the Garden by putting enmity between her and the devil? Or did He merely provide Eve with an opportunity to be reconciled? (And how come God didn't treat Adam the same way he treated Eve? But I digress...) But then in the next breath you tell us salvation is an "equal privilege and OPPORTUNITY for all"! So...which is it: Did he actually reconcile all mankind w/o exception, or did he simply provide all mankind w/o exception an opportunity to reconcile themselves to God? Somehow you keep conflating the two very different concepts.
And lastly, God never reconciled all mankind w/o exception to himself, since the vast majority of mankind Jesus NEVER KNEW (Mat 7:23). And since Jesus on the last day will tell all evildoers that He never knew him, this can only mean that his Father never gave any of those evildoers to Him. Therefore, the Father never knew them either! How could God love or reconcile anyone he never knew since He never entered into a personal, intimate, filial-type covenant relationship with all mankind w/o exception? If you're going to preach universal atonement for one and for all, you had better be sure there aren't any exceptions.