Yesterday, I sent up two posts to counter Bain's contention that the phrase "whole world" in Jn 2:2 can or should only be understood in the distributive sense, i.e. each and every person in the world. Interestingly, the apostle uses this phrase "whole world" in his various writings more than any other NT writer. This phrase appears 14 times in the NT and John used it 8 of those times -- most of the time in a restrictive sense. In fact, he used it again in the 5th chapter of his first epistle, which is the topic of this post. We should look briefly at this second use, lest any of us think that John's restrictive use of the term in the second chapter was a fluke or anomaly. The passage reads:
1 John 5:4-5, 18-19
4 for everyone born of God overcomes the world. This is the victory that has overcome the world, even our faith. 5 Who is it that overcomes the world? Only he who believes that Jesus is the Son of God....18 We know that anyone born of God does not continue to sin; the one who was born of God keeps him safe, and the evil one cannot harm him. 19 We know that we are children of God, and that the whole world is under the control of the evil one.
NIV
If "whole world" is in fact being used in the universal or distributive sense in this passage, this would pose some very significant theological problems, the chief of which is that John, writing by the Holy Spirit, would have been contradicting himself per vv. 4 and 18. This should be very obvious to all straight thinking people. For if the "whole world" is used in the distributive sense, then the Church that is in the world but not of it would also be "under control of the evil one" and, therefore, not overcoming the evil one's world. And what would that say about the One who keeps his people safe by prohibiting Satan from irrevocably harming anyone spiritually who is truly "born of God"?
Context once again is king! And despite what some FWer wrote recently, context determines how words or phrases are used.