For I am not ashamed of the gospel, because it is the power of God that brings salvation to everyone who believes:
first to the Jew, then to the Gentile.
(Romans 1:16)
explain why "the gospel" is ubiquitously singular if the teaching that there are plural gospels is not false. why Paul preaches to both Jews and Gentiles and why Peter is an exemplar to both Jews and Gentiles.
why there is no longer Jew nor Greek in Christ. why Paul, a Jew, specifically says he 'became like a Jew' to reach Jews.
explain why Paul, a Jew, says he is not under the law, since you say that Paul, a Jewish believer, is still under the law.
'my view contradicts the Bible but that's fine let's not make a fuss' is not a graceful exit. you seriously need to either learn to defend this stuff or stop trying to teach it so long as you are unwilling/unable to give an answer for what you believe.
When Paul wrote Romans, it was already years pass the events in Acts 15. By the time Acts ended, it was clear that the Jewish nation have rejected the Messiah, so the gospel of the circumcision has truly been postponed. By then, there is thus only one gospel, which is that of the uncircumcision.
We have gone thru this so many times last year. Why is it so difficult for you to accept that there will be people who interpret Bible differently from you?