Guess this needs to be done in two parts.
The Babel narrative is really quite fascinating from the perspective of historical linguistics in that it is one of very few ancient accounts of a people remembering (in a manner of speaking) the history of their language(s) - told of course in a religious context but remembered nonetheless.
To best understand this, a working definition of a few somewhat ambiguous terms must be defined.
Perhaps the most important term needing a more concise definition is (quote) “the whole world”. One must try and put into context and perspective the concept of what would have been considered “the whole world” to the original author(s) of the Babel narrative.
The answer is rather simple and straightforward: to a person or people living in what we know call the Middle East several thousand years ago, the "whole world" would have been just that; a small part of what we now call the Middle East.
The concept of a larger world existing beyond the lands these people inhabited (and those they were already familiar with) just didn’t exist. Their entire ‘world’ was confined to a relatively small area of the Levant. It is quite possible that lands even on the far borders of the Mediterranean were completely unknown to them.
The same holds true for the expression (quote) “all mankind”. Again, this term was confined to only the known people, tribes and nations encompassing their ‘world’.
So to summarize, in taking the narrative into historical context, the expressions “the whole world” and “all of mankind” must be understood to refer to a very small part and population of what we today call the Middle East.
Was there or could there indeed have been a common language spoken by (quote/unquote) “all mankind”?! From the point of historical linguistics, this is certainly an intriguing question!
The answer is, perhaps surprisingly, yes – however , this ‘yes’ must also be understood in context of the aforementioned definitions.
It is recognized that almost all languages of what are today the Middle East and parts of North Africa derive from one parent tongue: Proto Afro-Asiatic.
This proto-language, due to several factors including the migration and isolation of people from each other over time, split off into several dialects, one of which was what is called Proto-Semitic; the parent tongue of all Semitic languages. The general consensus seems to be that Proto-Semitic had its ultimate origins in Arabia, Mesopotamia or perhaps even Africa and spread westward. The timeframe for this split is still somewhat debated.
Proto-Semitic subsequently splintered off and developed into the various Semitic languages found in the ancient Middle East. This again was due to several factors including the migration of peoples and the general isolation of these peoples from one another over time. It is important to note that this process was not immediate; it took several hundred years for P-Semitic to develop into multiple separate languages.
It should also be noted that in ancient times, there were quite a few Semitic languages. It was a good-sized language family. Unfortunately, only a small handful of these have survived into modern times.
Turning back to the Babel narrative, and taking into context the concept of “the whole world” as we just discussed earlier; It is quite reasonable to conclude that the common language referred to in the Babel narrative as (quote) “spoken by all mankind” was, in fact, what we know today as Proto-Semitic.
This is how my mind works
“Was there or could there indeed have been a common language spoken by (quote/unquote) “all mankind”?! From the point of historical linguistics, this is certainly an intriguing question!”
Absolutely not even a question because my answers are always found here in scripture establishing what I certainly believe
“And
the whole earth was of one language, and of
one speech.
And the LORD said, Behold, the people is one, and
they have all one language; and this they begin to do: and now nothing will be restrained from them, which they have imagined to do.
Go to, let us go down, and there
confound their language, that they may not understand one another's speech.
So
the LORD scattered them abroad from thence upon the face of all the earth: and they left off to build the city. Therefore is the name of it called Babel; because the LORD did th
ere confound the language of all the earth: and from thence did the LORD scatter them abroad upon the face of all the earth.”
Genesis 11:1, 6-9 KJV
I may be a simple rube and have been called a hillbilly and sort of enjoy that title lol because that’s where I’m from but anyways , I might be simple but my belief is that the scriptures are true and hold the answers to anything I need to know science doesn’t , the government doesn’t , even my own reasoning doesn’t
While you probably have A lot Of good points I’m more of a scripture believer and try not to question and rethink but again this is just me .
It doesn’t make me an authority or the one with the right answer it’s just how my own thinking works regarding the Bible and what it says even if something doesnt seem logical I’m foolish enough to accept it as the truth because of who said it
Aim my view the Bible is pretty clear all mankind ( of course fewer at that time ) spoke one original language because they were born of one original man and woman
as d eventually through mans rebellion God decided to confound thier speech so they couldn’t understand each other all as one language and then he created the nations ( could be that’s where the seperate continents came from because beforehand at creation ( all the dry land was gathered in one place ) and of Gods speaks anything is possible just a thought though
anyways after that I’m the beginning when it came time for salvation God was needing to speak A message originally written and spoken in Hebrew and Aramaic he needed to get that message to the people of the other nations and languages from that language into all of thier languages in order to carry out the gospel commission to all creatures of earth
“And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.”
Mark 16:15 KJV
God doesn’t command us to do things we aren’t capable of so he gave them the gift of tongues or ( languages ) in order to accomplish the preaching of the gospel
God established one language one people , he then confounded it and spread languages and nations across the earth because of mans rebellion , later when salvstion came forth he brought his one message to all people of all nations and languages for the furthering of his kingdom
a notice how “ tongues “ really could be said “ languages “
“And they were all
filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to
speak with other tongues, ( languages)
as the Spirit gave them utterance.
And
there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven. ( at the time current )
Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and
were confounded, because that
every man heard them speak in his own language.
And
how hear we every man in our own tongue, ( language ) wherein we were born? Cretes and Arabians,
we do hear them speak in our tongues ( languages )
the wonderful works of God.”
Acts 2:4-6, 8, 11 KJV
See how again they were confounded over the language issue ? And how god solved it ? How now with the continuing gift of tongues to the church , every person could hear the witness of the gospel in the language they understand and either reject or believe the gospel
To me that’s where tongues is useful and practical and makes sense but I’m just a fellow person who studies scriptire and likes to discuss it
Nothing more or anything just my own opinion and what impersonally believe from scripture
always respect other opinions and thought also