The reference to "the blood of the covenant that sanctified him" in verse 29 appears to be referring to a Christian, but this overlooks the fact that the word translated "sanctified" (which is the verb form of the adjective "holy") which means "set apart," and doesn't necessarily refer to salvation.
But in this passage the author makes it crystal clear that he is referring to the saved person (Hebrews 10:10,14).
You're not being a very good Berean. You, like so many others, are not reading the Bible for yourself. You are reading what people have written about the Bible and have not tested it for yourself against what the Bible says. I guess the reasoning is these 'learned' mean who are held in high esteem and seem to be educated and spiritual about these things and have been followed and published for decades and centuries then they must know what they are talking about. Nothing could be further from the truth.
It's just interesting that you choose to use a usage of the word 'sanctified' that conveniently makes the passage once saved always saved while the author himself plainly tells us what he means by the person sanctified by the blood of Christ. It's hard to have respect for someone who does that.
*In 1 Corinthians 7:14, Paul uses it to specifically refer to non-Christians who are "sanctified" or "set apart" by their believing spouse. (And by this Paul does not mean that they are saved). A non-Christian can be "set apart" from other non-Christians without experiencing salvation as Paul clearly explained. So the word "sanctified" means to be "set apart."
If the word "sanctified" simply meant “saved,” then you would have to say that the Sabbath was saved (Genesis 2:3), the tabernacle was saved (Exodus 29:43), the Lord was saved (Leviticus 10:3), the Father saved the Son (John 10:36) which does not line up with scripture.
No, it does not mean you would have to say that.
'Sanctified' has
several uses and meanings in the Bible. The point is, the author of Hebrews tells us himself which one he is referring to, yet it is soundly rejected and ignored in popular teaching in the church in favor of another application and usage of 'sanctified' to suit a predetermined doctrine of 'once saved always saved'.
In verse 39, the writer of Hebrews sets up the CONTRAST that makes it clear to me that he was referring to unbelievers, not saved people: But we are not of those who draw back to perdition, but of those who believe to the saving of the soul. Those who draw back to perdition do not believe to the saving of the soul and those who believe to the saving of the soul do not draw back to perdition.
Look at this:
"23Let us hold fast the confession of our hope without wavering, for He who promised is faithful;"-Hebrews 10:23
"do not throw away your confidence, which has a great reward."-Hebrews 10:35
These exhortations make it IMPOSSIBLE that vs.39 means they are incapable of going back to unbelief.
So after considering the context, it seems most likely that "he was sanctified" should be understood in the sense of someone who had been "set apart" or identified as an active participant in the Hebrew Christian community of believers, but who has renounced his identification with other believers...
No. You did not consider the context. The context tells us in
plain words that 'sanctified' means the born again person:
"
By this will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all."-Hebrews 10:10
"
For by one offering He has perfected for all time those who are sanctified."-Hebrews 10:14
You are rejecting the plain words of the passage that defines 'sanctified' as someone who has been perfected in Christ (that is, saved) to defend a predetermined doctrine of once saved always saved.