Is YOUR church doctrinal statement ONE with SATAN?

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Jun 5, 2020
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Do you think the lesson of that story is for us to know how much two sparrows cost?
For a KJV legallist that's a surprising question. Isn't the literal meaning of the words you're after instead of the meaning? If it's the meaning, congratulations, you migrated from darkness to light.
 
Jun 5, 2020
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Why were there original writers? Why didn't God just send an angel with golden tablets that require special glasses to read them lol. God does what he wants. But he's not incapable of anything especially using words.
Can you spell rationalization?
 
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Locoponydirtman

Guest
To be known as “God’s word” every word has to be perfect, pure and without error. Does this describe the book you read?
Like unicorn, and Easter in a time when Easter didn't exist, and head polling?
 
Nov 23, 2013
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For a KJV legallist that's a surprising question. Isn't the literal meaning of the words you're after instead of the meaning? If it's the meaning, congratulations, you migrated from darkness to light.
I don't why you're calling me a legallist, I'm about as far from a legalist as you can get.

Jesus said my words are spirit, that means they DON'T EXIST in the literal world.That means the SPIRIT of the "originals" DID NOT EXIST.

Just like we have a body and a spirit, the body is tangible but the spirit is not. It's the same with the word of God. The body of the word of God at this time in history and in the English language is the KJV, the spirit of the word of God is hidden in the words of the KJV. The letter (words) killeth but the spirit (hidden in the symbolism of the words) bringeth life.

The word of God isn't bound by words, the words are just the container for the word of God, it's body. That's why I keep saying God is perfectly capable of putting the spirit of his word into any language he wants.

The KJV translated pnuema 7 times as Holy Spirit and 90 times as Holy Ghost. 7 is the number for completion and 9 is the number of fruit bearing... there are 9 fruits of the spirit, a woman brings forth fruit of the womb in 9 months. To say that the KJV translators did that own their own, along with the thousands of other similar things that they did is ridiculous, they couldn't have done it.

The entire world revolves around the King James bible, 9/11 comes from the bible. 9 represents fruit bearing, 11 represents confusion. September 11th 2001 represented the BIRTH of CONFUSION. Even the devil himself bows down to the KJV and submits to it's authority.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Like unicorn, and Easter in a time when Easter didn't exist, and head polling?
You are a freaking comedy of errors. Easter comes from the German word Oester which originally meant the RISING SUN. Get it, the RISING SON... the Christian celebration of the FULFILLMENT of the FORESHADOW called pascha. Yeah that's right, it's the ONLY PLACE IN THE BIBLE where pascha is mentioned AFTER it was fulfilled. God used that wicked homosexual King James and his wicked "pagan" translators to NAME the fulfillment of Passover as Easter - The Rising Son.

I'm guessing you have never researched the origin of the word Easter, you just took the word of the people that took the word of THE ONE ATHEIST who thought it originated with Ishtar. Yeah that's right there was one guy, way back that SAID that, and he had no evidence to back it up.
 
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Locoponydirtman

Guest
You are a freaking comedy of errors. Easter comes from the German word Oester which originally meant the RISING SUN. Get it, the RISING SON... the Christian celebration of the FULFILLMENT of the FORESHADOW called pascha. Yeah that's right, it's the ONLY PLACE IN THE BIBLE where pascha is mentioned AFTER it was fulfilled. God used that wicked homosexual King James and his wicked "pagan" translators to NAME the fulfillment of Passover as Easter - The Rising Son.

I'm guessing you have never researched the origin of the word Easter, you just took the word of the people that took the word of THE ONE ATHEIST who thought it originated with Ishtar. Yeah that's right there was one guy, way back that SAID that, and he had no evidence to back it up.
So there was no way Herod was waiting for the end of a celebration that was not happening in Israel. Or was Herod a German?

I don't know that James was a homosexual, I know he appointed himself head of the church.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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So there was no way Herod was waiting for the end of a celebration that was not happening in Israel. Or was Herod a German?

I don't know that James was a homosexual, I know he appointed himself head of the church.
I seriously doubt that Herod and most of the Jews celebrating Passover recognized the resurrection of Christ as fulfillment of Passover so they were waiting for Passover week to be over and that's why the "originals" used the word Pascha. Those originals were written to people alive back then who, we would have to assume, had no official name for the fulfillment of Passover.

The KJV is written to people of today's time where people don't celebrate the foreshadow of the death, burial and resurrection of Christ we celebrate the fulfillment of the death, burial and resurrection of Christ and we call that celebration Easter because God named it Easter in the KJV.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
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It might be enough to convince someone who is already convinced, but otherwise, it isn't.


Which is the correct term in John 3:3 and 7? "Born againe" or "born from above"? Even the KJV translators weren't sure.

And since they weren't sure, you can't be either.
Who says they weren’t sure? The Greek “anothen” were used by the KJ Translators and well aware of this fact. While the original KJV 1611 has the marginal notes as in the text of John 3:3, 7 “or from above”, these have been rejected by the translators in their final analysis. What’s in the text is the final word of the KJV. The Marginal Notes in others words may indicate rather a “…Hebrew or Greek words, which cannot fitly be…fitly expressed in the text.” That is Rule No. 6 of the Rules of KJV Translation. The fact is they know the Greek anothen very well and have it translated 5X as from above, 3x as top, 2x as again, 1x as from the first and 1x as from the beginning. Of course, they knew too well that words of more than one meaning will resort to the sense found in the context and this time they placed the Greek anothen in the text of John 3:3 and 7 which accurately used instead of the “from the above” which they are not denying it as one possible translation but not here.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Who says they weren’t sure? The Greek “anothen” were used by the KJ Translators and well aware of this fact. While the original KJV 1611 has the marginal notes as in the text of John 3:3, 7 “or from above”, these have been rejected by the translators in their final analysis. What’s in the text is the final word of the KJV. The Marginal Notes in others words may indicate rather a “…Hebrew or Greek words, which cannot fitly be…fitly expressed in the text.” That is Rule No. 6 of the Rules of KJV Translation. The fact is they know the Greek anothen very well and have it translated 5X as from above, 3x as top, 2x as again, 1x as from the first and 1x as from the beginning. Of course, they knew too well that words of more than one meaning will resort to the sense found in the context and this time they placed the Greek anothen in the text of John 3:3 and 7 which accurately used instead of the “from the above” which they are not denying it as one possible translation but not here.
""Born again" and "born from above" both mean the same thing but born again gives more clarity than born from above. Born again puts the second birth as the tangible birth of something NEW in the believer. In my opinion born from above doesn't do that as well.

Both of those terms point to our spiritual man that is created from the incorruptible words of God.... the bible.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
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So what? I don't equate it with the Word of God; no translation is the pure Word of God (which actually doesn't exist in its original form.) What it means in Revelation is exactly what it mean when it says in John1:14, "Now the Word became flesh and took up residence among us. We saw his glory—the glory of the one and only, full of grace and truth, who came from the Father. "
On the other hand I am not going to pull a phrase from Revelation to prove anything about Bible translations. Jesus is the logos -- the manifestation of God --, he is not a phrase.

As the Logos, Jesus Christ is God in self-revelation (Light) and redemption (Life). ... Jesus Christ not only gives God's Word to us humans; he is the Word. The Logos is God, begotten and therefore distinguishable from the Father, but, being God, of the same substance (essence). "
Umm, you really don't get things in its proper perspective. I move on...


Act 4:31
And when they had prayed, the place was shaken where they were assembled together; and they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and they spake the word of God with boldness.

Act 6:7
And the word of God increased; and the number of the disciples multiplied in Jerusalem greatly; and a great company of the priests were obedient to the faith.

Act 8:14
Now when the apostles which were at Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent unto them Peter and John:

Act 11:1
And the apostles and brethren that were in Judaea heard that the Gentiles had also received the word of God.

Act 12:24
But the word of God grew and multiplied
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
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""Born again" and "born from above" both mean the same thing but born again gives more clarity than born from above. Born again puts the second birth as the tangible birth of something NEW in the believer. In my opinion born from above doesn't do that as well.

Both of those terms point to our spiritual man that is created from the incorruptible words of God.... the bible.
Okay that gives a clear, brief explanation. Thanks
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Okay that gives a clear, brief explanation. Thanks
That's another example of inspiration of God. The KJV translators didn't know which way to go with it, as evidenced by the margin notes, but God MOVED THEM to use born again instead of born from above.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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Who says they weren’t sure? The Greek “anothen” were used by the KJ Translators and well aware of this fact. While the original KJV 1611 has the marginal notes as in the text of John 3:3, 7 “or from above”, these have been rejected by the translators in their final analysis. What’s in the text is the final word of the KJV. The Marginal Notes in others words may indicate rather a “…Hebrew or Greek words, which cannot fitly be…fitly expressed in the text.” That is Rule No. 6 of the Rules of KJV Translation. The fact is they know the Greek anothen very well and have it translated 5X as from above, 3x as top, 2x as again, 1x as from the first and 1x as from the beginning. Of course, they knew too well that words of more than one meaning will resort to the sense found in the context and this time they placed the Greek anothen in the text of John 3:3 and 7 which accurately used instead of the “from the above” which they are not denying it as one possible translation but not here.
Words that were "rejected by the translators in their final analysis" would not have been included in marginal notes. That's just ridiculous rationalization.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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That's another example of inspiration of God. The KJV translators didn't know which way to go with it, as evidenced by the margin notes, but God MOVED THEM to use born again instead of born from above.
You use this rationalization for the KJV, but you reject the same process for every other translation in English. That's inconsistent.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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it really doesn’t matter what denominations are used as long as the denominations are the same in both verses that use farthing in the KJV.
you're saying some words in the scripture don't matter?
I seriously doubt that Herod and most of the Jews celebrating Passover recognized the resurrection of Christ as fulfillment of Passover so they were waiting for Passover week to be over and that's why the "originals" used the word Pascha. Those originals were written to people alive back then who, we would have to assume, had no official name for the fulfillment of Passover.

The KJV is written to people of today's time where people don't celebrate the foreshadow of the death, burial and resurrection of Christ we celebrate the fulfillment of the death, burial and resurrection of Christ and we call that celebration Easter because God named it Easter in the KJV.

Those people most assuredly did have a name for the fulfillment of passover.

They call it what God calls it: Passover.

Eostare found its way into Tyndale's Bible through a German antisemitic tradition. Geneva got it right; it's Pascha. KJV got it wrong.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
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Words that were "rejected by the translators in their final analysis" would not have been included in marginal notes. That's just ridiculous rationalization.
Yap, in finality, they did not accept 'born from above' as it is was fitting word on the context of the rule No. 6.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
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Words that were "rejected by the translators in their final analysis" would not have been included in marginal notes. That's just ridiculous rationalization.
It might seem you just disregard my post of the word 'final' analysis...
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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you're saying some words in the scripture don't matter?
He's responded to this line of questioning before... it wouldn't have mattered which words the KJV translators used, but every other translation got it wrong. :rolleyes:

Agreed... and all the explain-away-tions won't change that.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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It might seem you just disregard my post of the word 'final' analysis...
Not at all. People don't include words that they "reject" without further explanation, which those notes don't have.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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You use this rationalization for the KJV, but you reject the same process for every other translation in English. That's inconsistent.
I do believe the other versions are inspired too but they're inspired by a different spirit. The spirit that led the NIV translators to translate "a son of the gods" wasn't the same Spirit that inspired the KJV writers to translate it as "the Son of God. Surely you can see this.