For a KJV legallist that's a surprising question. Isn't the literal meaning of the words you're after instead of the meaning? If it's the meaning, congratulations, you migrated from darkness to light.
Is YOUR church doctrinal statement ONE with SATAN?
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For a KJV legallist that's a surprising question. Isn't the literal meaning of the words you're after instead of the meaning? If it's the meaning, congratulations, you migrated from darkness to light.
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Locoponydirtman
Guest
I don't why you're calling me a legallist, I'm about as far from a legalist as you can get.
Jesus said my words are spirit, that means they DON'T EXIST in the literal world.That means the SPIRIT of the "originals" DID NOT EXIST.
Just like we have a body and a spirit, the body is tangible but the spirit is not. It's the same with the word of God. The body of the word of God at this time in history and in the English language is the KJV, the spirit of the word of God is hidden in the words of the KJV. The letter (words) killeth but the spirit (hidden in the symbolism of the words) bringeth life.
The word of God isn't bound by words, the words are just the container for the word of God, it's body. That's why I keep saying God is perfectly capable of putting the spirit of his word into any language he wants.
The KJV translated pnuema 7 times as Holy Spirit and 90 times as Holy Ghost. 7 is the number for completion and 9 is the number of fruit bearing... there are 9 fruits of the spirit, a woman brings forth fruit of the womb in 9 months. To say that the KJV translators did that own their own, along with the thousands of other similar things that they did is ridiculous, they couldn't have done it.
The entire world revolves around the King James bible, 9/11 comes from the bible. 9 represents fruit bearing, 11 represents confusion. September 11th 2001 represented the BIRTH of CONFUSION. Even the devil himself bows down to the KJV and submits to it's authority.
You are a freaking comedy of errors. Easter comes from the German word Oester which originally meant the RISING SUN. Get it, the RISING SON... the Christian celebration of the FULFILLMENT of the FORESHADOW called pascha. Yeah that's right, it's the ONLY PLACE IN THE BIBLE where pascha is mentioned AFTER it was fulfilled. God used that wicked homosexual King James and his wicked "pagan" translators to NAME the fulfillment of Passover as Easter - The Rising Son.
I'm guessing you have never researched the origin of the word Easter, you just took the word of the people that took the word of THE ONE ATHEIST who thought it originated with Ishtar. Yeah that's right there was one guy, way back that SAID that, and he had no evidence to back it up.
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Locoponydirtman
Guest
So there was no way Herod was waiting for the end of a celebration that was not happening in Israel. Or was Herod a German?
I don't know that James was a homosexual, I know he appointed himself head of the church.
I seriously doubt that Herod and most of the Jews celebrating Passover recognized the resurrection of Christ as fulfillment of Passover so they were waiting for Passover week to be over and that's why the "originals" used the word Pascha. Those originals were written to people alive back then who, we would have to assume, had no official name for the fulfillment of Passover.
The KJV is written to people of today's time where people don't celebrate the foreshadow of the death, burial and resurrection of Christ we celebrate the fulfillment of the death, burial and resurrection of Christ and we call that celebration Easter because God named it Easter in the KJV.
Who says they weren’t sure? The Greek “anothen” were used by the KJ Translators and well aware of this fact. While the original KJV 1611 has the marginal notes as in the text of John 3:3, 7 “or from above”, these have been rejected by the translators in their final analysis. What’s in the text is the final word of the KJV. The Marginal Notes in others words may indicate rather a “…Hebrew or Greek words, which cannot fitly be…fitly expressed in the text.” That is Rule No. 6 of the Rules of KJV Translation. The fact is they know the Greek anothen very well and have it translated 5X as from above, 3x as top, 2x as again, 1x as from the first and 1x as from the beginning. Of course, they knew too well that words of more than one meaning will resort to the sense found in the context and this time they placed the Greek anothen in the text of John 3:3 and 7 which accurately used instead of the “from the above” which they are not denying it as one possible translation but not here.
""Born again" and "born from above" both mean the same thing but born again gives more clarity than born from above. Born again puts the second birth as the tangible birth of something NEW in the believer. In my opinion born from above doesn't do that as well.
Both of those terms point to our spiritual man that is created from the incorruptible words of God.... the bible.
Umm, you really don't get things in its proper perspective. I move on...
And when they had prayed, the place was shaken where they were assembled together; and they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and they spake the word of God with boldness.
Act 6:7
And the word of God increased; and the number of the disciples multiplied in Jerusalem greatly; and a great company of the priests were obedient to the faith.
Now when the apostles which were at Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent unto them Peter and John:
And the apostles and brethren that were in Judaea heard that the Gentiles had also received the word of God.
But the word of God grew and multiplied
That's another example of inspiration of God. The KJV translators didn't know which way to go with it, as evidenced by the margin notes, but God MOVED THEM to use born again instead of born from above.
Words that were "rejected by the translators in their final analysis" would not have been included in marginal notes. That's just ridiculous rationalization.
You use this rationalization for the KJV, but you reject the same process for every other translation in English. That's inconsistent.
you're saying some words in the scripture don't matter?
Those people most assuredly did have a name for the fulfillment of passover.
They call it what God calls it: Passover.
Eostare found its way into Tyndale's Bible through a German antisemitic tradition. Geneva got it right; it's Pascha. KJV got it wrong.
Yap, in finality, they did not accept 'born from above' as it is was fitting word on the context of the rule No. 6.
He's responded to this line of questioning before... it wouldn't have mattered which words the KJV translators used, but every other translation got it wrong.
Agreed... and all the explain-away-tions won't change that.
Not at all. People don't include words that they "reject" without further explanation, which those notes don't have.
I do believe the other versions are inspired too but they're inspired by a different spirit. The spirit that led the NIV translators to translate "a son of the gods" wasn't the same Spirit that inspired the KJV writers to translate it as "the Son of God. Surely you can see this.