Were Nephilim (Gen 6) judged differently by God?

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Did God's forgiveness ever, at any point, apply to angels?

  • Not sure. The Bible does not say

    Votes: 0 0.0%

  • Total voters
    23

FollowerofShiloh

Well-known member
Jan 24, 2024
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God told Moses to write down that some "sons of God" married daughters of men and that scripture does not mention "angels". . I fully believe that scripture too, sir, because it is in the Word of God. How you accept or interpret it differently is your choice.
"Hebrew people" as a nation, rejected, complained, and "murmured" against Moses and God in the "wilderness", so much so that all of them, except the young, died in that wilderness all of which was also recorded by Moses himself. Then when Jesus came, the nation of Israel rejected Him and still reject Him to this very day. So, just because some Hebrews interpreted the Bible differently, and since it's "Hebrew people" who also deny that Isaiah 53 is about Jesus Christ when I know good and well that it is, how does that qualify "Hebrew people" to correctly interpret scriptures simply because they are Hebrews? Jesus Himself told them they were getting it wrong in His day too. Having said that, I still respect, love, support and pray for the Nation of Israel also because the Bible tells me to. You are way out of line accusing me of calling God a liar, sir.
There is NO WAY you know better than what Jews believe this verse means when they have been teaching it from Moses until today going on just about 4,000 years.

You can't even read or write in Hebrew but expect to tell me some english person knows more than the ones who God gave this to directly.
 

FollowerofShiloh

Well-known member
Jan 24, 2024
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Sir, are you a Christian?
Part 2:
I am a natural born Jew who went through Mishnah, the study of Torah (Genesis thru Deuteronomy), the Prophets (Isaiah thru Malachi), the Psalms or rest of the Tanakh (Old Testament) and like my Grandfather (Rabbi and first Jew in his family to accept Jesus as Lord, God and Savior and Messiah) and my Dad and myself and my son who are Born Again Christians. We are fundamental Pentecostal.

I am not trying to be mean to you at all but you are like a bunch of other Christians who just think they know because how they interpret things according to the kjv and NEVER pay attention to see how God actually taught it to His CHOSEN People whom He gave it to at the time. The kjv did not exist until the 1600s and the Strongs did not exist for another 100 years afterwards.

It's like telling Moses, yeah, I know God told you this in YOUR NATIVE LANGUAGE HEBREW, but my ENGLISH, a 3rd translation, a language that would not exist for another 2,500 years until about 600 A.D. says you are stupid and don't have a clue.
 

Diakonos

Well-known member
Jan 19, 2019
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Anacortes, WA
What verse says that's the reasons Adam is called that?
If that's the case, why is Adam the only believer in the genealogy called "son of God"?


What verse says angels cannot be sons of God"?


That interpretation is inconsistent with the context of Job 38. The verbiage of verses 7 is past tense and the surrounding verses describe past events regarding creation. Job 38:7 is about old creation.

Isaiah 51 is speaking of Jewish failures and God's future restoration of the Jews (mentioned throughout the chapter). The New Heavens and New Earth is the context. Isaiah 51:15 is about the new creation that God will bring about.
God asked Job.....
Job 38:4 Where wast thou when I laid the foundations of the earth? declare, if thou hast understanding.

An easy answer, would have been "I wasn't born yet" and that would not have required much "understanding". But I believe the question was far more important and profound than that. The scripture does not say that Job ever answered it. There are a few things we should know.

#1. Angels cannot be "sons of God" " at any time" (Hebrews 1:5)
#2. Human beings can become sons of God by faith.
#3. God "inhabits eternity" which means He is in the past, present, and future all at the same moment.
From that, we should be able to draw the conclusion that all of the "sons of God" are indeed already with Jesus, shouting and praising Him at this very moment from God's perspective because HE is already in the future. We don't know this because we are bound to chronological time and the physical world. This is why I think God's question was so profound. And I could be wrong about the whole thing. As the scripture says we "see through a glass darkly". We'll never know it all
You are not addressing my critiques of your previous errors; you are just restating what you already said. It carries no argumentative weight.

The fact that you've already quoted 2 passages out of context implies an ignorance of the texts you think supports your view. They do not. There is a flaw in the chain of assumptions you lean on to justify the Sethite view of Genesis 6. Nowhere in the Bible are humans called "bene elohim". I challenge you to show me a single example.

Your misapplication of Isaiah 51 shows that you were wrong about the "future" interpretation of Job 38:7, when it is, in fact, about the past because the passage is about original creation. The "bene elohim" in Job 38:7 is clearly referring to angels because humans were not created yet.

Now if you have a real response, please respond to what actually say instead of changing the subject and deflecting to irrelevant passages again. Don't prooftext. Read the Bible slowly without assumption.