You did not explain why Paul mentioned the law 52 times.
I know that the Gentiles in Rome knew nothing of the law.
So please explain why the word 'law' appears 52 times.
Was Paul addressing the Jews in Rome?
I don't understand your questions? Why is the number of times the law was mentioned germane?
Paul was addressing the elect in Rome, who happened also to be Jews -
just as he addressed the elect in Ephesus.
To be of the elect trumps and overshadows all other categories or divisions that might pertain to someone.
If there's a specific underlying point that you're trying to make, why don't you just go-ahead make it instead of
beating around the bush because I can't figure out what it might be.
[Rom 1:7 KJV] 7 To all that be in Rome, beloved of God, called [to be] saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ.