Please disregard my previous post. After pasting it into Microsoft word and removing the scriptures I was able to get a sense of what you were trying to convey (at least I think I do).
What does this verse say to me? It says that Paul recognized two issues that he needed to clarify for the believers in the church of Thessalonica: (1) The coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and (2)The gathering of the believers to Jesus Christ. This reveals that there were two events and Paul was about to provide clarity regarding them.
" Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him."
You cannot understand this verse without tying it with the coming verse. Only then do we see its context.
Verse 2-3 says: That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand. Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition.
Obviously, the believers were concerned that they had been left behind [and that they were in the tribulation period]. Knowing that the church was going through many trials and persecution, it's no wonder that they were concerned that they were already in the tribulation period specially since there were certain individuals were preaching that the day of the Lord had already came.
Paul in verse three makes a very clear statement. He combines the two events into one in saying that "day" shall not come... This goes to show that the day of the Lord is not a "day" in it's literal sence of 24 hours but rather a period of time consisting of at least two events.
It is important to note that Paul did not refute the implication of the notion that the day of christ had already came.an]. If the day of the Lord had already began and the Thessalonians were not gathered or raptured, then it meant that they were in the tribulation period.
I agree... here, Paul is stating that the day will not come until [the] Antichrist takes control.
That does not make much sense to me. So you don't believe in of the meaning of the word? That same word was used to "rapture" Phillip in Acts 8:39
You are missing one of the fundamental keys to this passage. Let's recap, first Paul had to clarify a misunderstand of the Day of the Lord. Paul said that that day will not come until the man of lawlessness is revealed. Now, we see that Paul is saying that this man of lawlessness is being restrained by a mysterious "he." Who is this he that is so powerful that he restrains the "great rebellion against God, the man of lawlessness who will bring destruction and "exalt himself and defy everything that people call god and every object of worship?" That's not all, but this man of lawlessness will also "sit in the temple of God, claiming that he himself is God."
Certainly not the the pagan Roman Emperors as per Gil Commentary (From Moho's post).
We know that this "HE" must be stepped out of the way so that the man of lawlessness might be revealed. This He can be no other than the Holy Spirit who is powerful enough to hold such evil. With the removal of the Holy Spirit which is here only because of the Church, He will only be removed because the church is no longer present.
This is consistent with Paul's message in approaching the Thessalonians' concerns.