The need to add a definitive into a verse (or anything) to prove a point is a clear sign of a weak argument.
Do you use this reasoning with other subjects?
The need to add a definitive into a verse (or anything) to prove a point is a clear sign of a weak argument.
Act 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.The Bible has more than ONE VERSE. Taking the Biblical account as a whole, it's CLEAR the "Works" / "Works of the law" sre not salvific, but are the natural effect of BEING SAVED. Works contribute to the maturing process (Rom 8:28,29 - Jas 2:18). But only FAITH saves (Eph 2:8,9).
Simple as that.
A beautiful gift! ❤
“For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God,”
Ephesians 2:8 NKJV
“Therefore know that only those who are of faith are sons of Abraham.”
Galatians 3:7 NKJV
Yes, and we do not earn or merit it by accepting it, just like at Christmas!![]()
The need to add a definitive into a verse (or anything) to prove a point is a clear sign of a weak argument.
Do you use this reasoning with other subjects?
Do you have any verses that state the "only" part of your assertion?
If not I suggest you rethink this assertion.
The need to add a definitive into a verse to prove a point is a clear sign of a weak argument.Saved by God's grace/gift alone through saving faith for good works. (Eph. 2:8-10)
Simple as that!
Biblical context??? There is nothing in the Biblical context that supports the shoehorning of any definitive into Eph.2:8-10.Pay attention to Biblical context, not denominational "Theology".
What is there to explain?I have no idea what you are complaining about, so please explain!
Thanks. LIC, GWH
Where is your free will Scripture? Oh, it does not exist.How about showing your "faith alone" scriptures or fold.
What is there to explain?
Can you not see that you are adding a definitive (alone) into your understanding of Eph. 2:8-10?
By adding "alone" into the meaning of the verse, you have changed a general statement into an all-encompassing declaration.
This is not what Paul meant, if he did he would have written it that way.
Let the Bible speak on its own.
Some one? No.Do you mean to say that Paul believed there was someone other than God who can save?
The only thing in Eph. 2:8-10 that is not stated is "alone". It is you who is adding this to the verses.I AM letting the Bible speak, and it does NOT say that!
This thread is not about "free will".Where is your free will Scripture? Oh, it does not exist.
Some one? No.
The only thing in Eph. 2:8-10 that is not stated is "alone". It is you who is adding this to the verses.
It doesn't exist, but misrepresenting what others believe makes things easier, doesn't it?Where is your coerced will scripture?
Saved by God's grace/gift alone through saving faith for good works. (Eph. 2:8-10)
Simple as that!
I just think of another verb and make up a comparable sentence and context. If you throw a verb of your choice at me, I'll see if I can make up another comparable example using that. It's possible because verbal structures are used in language to convey a range of nuanced meanings.
Don't confuse "CAUSE" with "Effect".
Where is your honesty? I never said the will was coerced. That's what liars say who love to misrepresent.This thread is not about "free will".
But I will play along. A simple invitation of three simple words.
Matthew 4:19
Come, follow me,” Jesus said, “and I will send you out to fish for people.”
Now how about you?
Where is your coerced will scripture?
Oh, it does not exist.
Does that then mean the person is not in God's Salvific grace?“Thus also faith by itself, if it does not have works, is dead.”
James 2:17 NKJV