problem related to praying in tongues
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Can you conjugate all the verbs for me in this supernatural language?
Well you would be wrong I spent a huge portion of my time in 2017/2018 reading both sides of the exegesis, having done free vocalization one time, the exegesis is clear when one uses proper hermeneutics.
Sometimes God uses unbelievers.
9 Jesus said to him, “Have I been with you so long, and you still do not know me, Philip? Whoever has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, ‘Show us the Father’?I know but Jesus is the Subject of the second verse, which makes Jesus being with God in the beginning.
And not Jesus being the father
10 The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own authority, but the Father who dwells in me does his works
Amazing:
the FATHER is on HIS THRONE in HEAVEN and also living inside of Jesus at SAME TIME [[Omnipresence]]
ok I'll take your view and store it to the back of my mind thanks
.Now after 10 pages of debating that Jesus is the father.
My view still stands.
When tounges are spoken it is the father speaking
Tongues of men and of angels has been explained ad nauseum -
“Tongues of angels” is frequently used as a vehicle to posit ‘angelic speech’. That entire phrase, as well as a few others in that particular part of Paul’s letter, is 100% pure textbook hyperbole no matter how one wishes to slice and dice it. There’s just no getting around that. In all instances of angels speaking, it has always been in a real, rational language. In fact, in traditional Jewish belief, angels can only speak and understand one language; specifically, the sacred/sacerdotal language of Judaism, Hebrew. Paul, being a Jew, would have known this, which lends further support for his intentional use of hyperbole.
1 Cor.14:4 - Yes, because he’s the only one who understands what he’s saying – no one else speaks his language; thus, he’s the only person benefiting. That's not, however, what Paul would like to see happen. Throughout his letter, he calls for clarity and understanding at a public worship such that all may benefit, hence his call for an interpreter.
now, apply that ^ to John 1:1
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
No. When a person speaks in tongues, he does not know what he is saying (1 Cor 14:2). His understanding is unfruitful (1 Cor 14:14).
Sometimes people think they are using "proper biblical hermeneutics" when they aren't. A person using words like exegesis, eisegesis, hermeneutic, etc is not indicative that the person is correct in what they believe.
This is true, but it's certainly not always true.
I have heard your explanation before.
When a person speaks in tongues he does not understand what he is saying (1 Cor 14:2). I have read your "explanation" of that verse too.
Yes, when a person speaks in tongues aloud in a meeting, he (that person) must interpret so the church can be edified.
When a person speaks in tongues, the person is speaking TO God (1 Cor 14:2).
but God gives the person the Utterance to know what to Speak to God about.
so, God searches you, causes you to Speak, then hears you, and then edifies you.
I can show you several other verses that indicate Jesus and the father are both separate.
You haven't taken into the account that The spirit is the same.
Jesus saying if you have seen me you have seen the father could mean Just that.
Jesus prayed in spirit to his fathers spirit on earth.
Nope nice try Sherlock
But have your last word I won't reply further on the subject because you won't change my mind regardless if you shoot fire out of your mouth or bolts of lightening out of the sky
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there is NO Angelic Speech that relates to Speaking in Tongues.
the Angels don't even know what's being said.
the Bible says only God knows what's being said.
so, there is no hyperbole because everyone knows Tongues is not Angelic Language.
people would have laughed as soon as they read 1 cor 14:1.
only today do they screw it up.
they are never separate. Jesus only does what the Father allows Him to do. the Father lives inside of Jesus and is making ALL of the decisions and saying everything we read.I can show you several other verses that indicate Jesus and the father are both separate.
You haven't taken into the account that The spirit is the same.
Jesus saying if you have seen me you have seen the father could mean Just that.
Jesus prayed in spirit to his fathers spirit on earth.
Nope nice try Sherlock
But have your last word I won't reply further on the subject because you won't change my mind regardless if you shoot fire out of your mouth or bolts of lightening out of the sky
The utterance, the actual words, come from the Spirit.
The spirit gives the utterance, the words. It does not "cause you to speak." If the person does not speak, he will not speak in tongues. God does not possess people and make them speak in tongues.
God hears, yes.
The person is edified when they speak in tongues.
Yes, because no one understands a bloody word he's saying - no one speaks/understands his language. Again, unless the author of the text is a bad grammarian, there's no way to posit the speaker has no clue what he's saying. It just isn't there.