Really oh and your blanket statements will confirm that.
John confirms Jesus was there in the beginning.
problem related to praying in tongues
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John confirms Jesus was there in the beginning.
Jesus called Mary WOMAN. But on the cross He told John Mary was John's Mother.
Jesus separated Mary from word GO because Mary was only a instrument used by God
Jesus separated Mary from word GO because Mary was only a instrument used by God
1 Corinthians 14:10-12 is clearly talking about human languages:
"There are, it may be, so many kinds of languages in the world, and none of them is without significance. Therefore, if I do not know the meaning of the language, I shall be a foreigner to him who speaks, and he who speaks will be a foreigner to me. Even so you, since you are zealous for spiritual gifts, let it be for the edification of the church that you seek to excel."
He's talking about "languages in the world," not angelic languages. What a person would have to do is say Paul was using earthly languages as an example but was really talking about heavenly languages. It wouldn't surprise me a bit to see this argument being made.
On another point, Paul clearly says the main reason for spiritual gifts is for the edification of the church, not the individual.
Our being sons of God is described as both literal and adoption. If you're a Christian, you are literally born of God by the gift of holy spirit.
Mary...
A logos has no parents. The logos made flesh does. God created within Mary what was necessary for her to conceive the human Messish, Jesus Christ. Jesus' literal mother is Mary. His literal Father is God (through an act of creation).
No he doesn't. God's logos (His will, plan, purposes) was there in the beginning. Jesus wasn't.
Mary was Jesus' literal, actual mother. It is through Mary that Jesus Christ was a blood descendant of David. On the cross, Jesus was telling John to take care of Mary.
John 1:1–3: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things were made through him,
The word and he are described as two separate insertions here.
The word means the word that was with God, and he means Jesus.
How can you conclude he means the word, ?
That would be an exaggeration
The word was with both Jesus and God.
do you actually read the Bible?
He who speaks in a tongue edifies himself, but he who prophesies edifies the church.
It is ironic because I am willing to bet you have never really done a deep dive into the opposing view with good exegesis and looking at the historical context.
Believe as you will, Corinthians is letter written to a church which had many earthly languages and it was causing confusion among the members and Paul was given instruction on how to deal with the various languages being spoken.
I just think it is sad how people are duped. As @Kavik has clearly articulated this phenomena of speaking "in tongues" has been closely examined and researched, it is not a language it is a string of meaningless morphemes.
Language has structure and is organized it is not free vocalization.
do you believe the figure of God as a man in the OLD TESTAMENT is the pre-incarnate Jesus, who will be God as man in the New Testament?
In 1 Cor 13:1, Paul says speaking in tongues can be a language of men or of angels.
Paul also clearly says that when a person speaks in tongues, the person is edified (1 Cor 14:4). If a person speaks in tongues aloud in the church, he must interpret so the church can be edified.
Jesus Christ is not the subject of the first few verses of John 1.
You would lose.
I will believe what the Bible says.
Paul was dealing with the proper usage of the manifestations of tongues, interpretation, and prophecy in the church (in meetings).
So do I.
Kavik is an unbeliever.
Speaking in tongues has structure.
I know but Jesus is the Subject of the second verse, which makes Jesus being with God in the beginning.
And not Jesus being the father
Yes good point, "languages in the world" is clearer.
They were not "known earthly languages" (my words) to the people in the congregation, I was using that phrasing in oppositon to the idea it was a supernatural language.
I like clarity!
Again, Jesus Christ is not the subject of the first few verses of John 1. This includes verse 2.I know but Jesus is the Subject of the second verse, which makes Jesus being with God in the beginning.
And not Jesus being the father
Yes, she was.
It was Mary's egg. God provided the seed through an act of creation.