I was curious and so just ask.... In post #402,pg.21 where she ask if Christians followed all the laws in the Torah do you think she meant the Torah meaning the first five books or all of the "laws of Moses"? Why I ask is that in the Torah in Genesis 9 there is an covenant with the descendants of Noah
https://biblehub.com/interlinear/genesis/9.htm and then afterwards there is the "law of Moses" given to the Hebrews after the exodus. So was the Law of Moses given to every tribe on the earth or to those who came out of bondage in Egypt? In Deuteronomy 2 the Children of Esau(descendant of Abraham) dwelt in Sier and Lot's(Abraham's nephew) children in Moab and so they were never in captivity do they honer the Passover feast when they were never involved in it? The Greeks,the Egyptians, the Persians the tribe of Ishmael?
https://biblehub.com/interlinear/deuteronomy/2.htm