Does your agreement include agreement that Jesus' flesh was not corrupt?I would agree with that.
What gives you the impression that I do not understand that Jesus came only once to redeem mankind?But not the way you seem to be using it as some kind of hope in the things seen the flesh what the eyes .Hoping it could profit for something other than a one time demonstration of the unseen work.
You do understand that God sent His only begotten Son in the flesh? This was God's doing. So, if you have any problem with Jesus having come in the flesh, take it up with God.Understanding (walking) by the things seen the temporal. . rather than by the faith of God that works in the believer. The eternal. . not seen
Look, I don't have any statues of Jesus in my house, or in my car.I think when we think of eternal God, the Spirit of Truth. . He remains without beginning.
Our imagination if walking by faith should come up blank. He who remins without form is greater than the our imagination of the heart.
He is not made after corruptible man or any rudiment of this world. This is to include the flesh of the Son of Man,. Jesus
My honoring and respecting Jesus having come in the flesh does not mean that I do not understand that He is now seated at the right hand in the heavenlies, far above all principality, and power, and might, and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this world, but also in that which is to come (Eph 1:20-21).The one time demonstration of the lamb who was slain already. . . from the foundation of the world when God was working.. Never again another demonstration..( 2 Corinthians 5:16)
Like you did define 3667 (homoíōma) . In the same way simply define the words now henceforth no more. (nothing nada zip)
Wherefore henceforth know we no man after the flesh: yea, though we have known Christ after the flesh, yet now henceforth know we him no more.2 Corinthians 5:16
Jesus is the High Priest.I would agree the likeness of sinful flesh was only a resemblance ((homoíōma) of our High priest continually as the Son of God. (Melchedik)
Does your agreement include agreement that Jesus' flesh was not corrupt?
The point of my showing you the definition of the word in the Greek was that you would understand that there was no sin (corruption) in Jesus' flesh.
The Lord Jesus Christ had no sin ... did not sin at all ... body, soul, spirit.Yes the eternal Spirit was not corrupt. The Son of man,Jesus did not sin in His eternal Spirit.
The Lord Jesus Christ was in all points tempted like as we are yet without sin (Heb 4:15).garee said:He had the power working in him not to in his earthen body of death . We who have a temporal spirit don't have that power of our own selves. We are not in the place as the Father of spirits, as sons of God.
The Lord Jesus Christ died because He laid His life down. He had no sin which would have resulted in death in Him. He was without sin.garee said:Bodies that do die are corrupted. They have no spirit essence the breath of life . It returns to where it came from the father. . just as the dust. . it ages also.
You have provided absolutely no Scripture (chapter, verse) to support your assertion that the Lord Jesus Christ was "corruptible". All Scripture points to the fact that He was victorious over sin and death. Although satan tried, he was unsuccessful in his attempts to lure the Lord Jesus Christ.garee said:Why glory in the corruptible?
These verses relate to descendants of Adam ... those begotten in the image and likeness of Adam (Gen 5:3).garee said:2 Corinthians 4:7 But we have this treasure in earthen vessels, that the excellency of the power may be of God, and not of us.
Romans 7:24 O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver me from the body of this death?
As I pointed out in Post #462, Jesus' flesh profits us:garee said:Exactly the flesh profits for zero nothing.
No one here disagrees with this, garee.garee said:It is the work of the unseen Spirit that can give new birth to a dead soul and a new heart that desires to do the will of one unseen.
Its the food the disciples at first knew not of, hid in the parables called hidden manna in Revelation 2. . our daily bread. .
Yes the eternal Spirit was not corrupt.
Garee, this is a good example of what makes your posts so convoluted.
Here is the question that you were asked: "Does your agreement include agreement that Jesus' flesh was not corrupt?"
You answered a different question! Everything else you wrote in that post also undermined your answer, and leads me to believe that you still think Jesus had corrupted flesh, which is an unbiblical belief.
Next time, just answer the question with a 'yes' or 'no' and no further commentary.
The Lord Jesus Christ had no sin ... did not sin at all ... body, soul, spirit.
The Lord Jesus Christ was in all points tempted like as we are yet without sin (Heb 4:15).
The Lord Jesus Christ died because He laid His life down. He had no sin which would have resulted in death in Him. He was without sin.
John 10:15 As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep.
You have provided absolutely no Scripture (chapter, verse) to support your assertion that the Lord Jesus Christ was "corruptible". All Scripture points to the fact that He was victorious over sin and death. Although satan tried, he was unsuccessful in his attempts to lure the Lord Jesus Christ.
These verses relate to descendants of Adam ... those begotten in the image and likeness of Adam (Gen 5:3).
The Lord Jesus Christ was the only begotten Son of God:
Luke 1:35 And the angel answered and said to her, “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Highest will overshadow you; therefore, also, that Holy One who is to be born will be called the Son of God.
Do not misapply verses written about those who were descended from Adam.
The Lord Jesus Christ did not fully partake ... He only took part:
Hebrews 2:14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;
As I pointed out in Post #462, Jesus' flesh profits us:
Hebrews 10:19 Having therefore, brethren, boldness to enter into the holiest by the blood of Jesus, 20 By a new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh; 21 And having an high priest over the house of God; 22 Let us draw near with a true heart in full assurance of faith, having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience, and our bodies washed with pure water.Do you see that the new and living way in which we draw near to God is through the veil, that is to say, his flesh?When you insist that Jesus' flesh was corrupt, you cut off our ability to draw near with a true heart.You must come to understand that there was absolutely no corruptness in Jesus ... None ... "nada. zip" if you want to draw near with a true heart ... having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience, and our bodies washed with pure water.If there was any blemish or spot in Jesus, our bodies were not washed with pure water, our hearts were not sprinkled from an evil conscience. We are still far off.
No one here disagrees with this, garee.
All agree that we are born again because it is God Who works within us ... Eph 2:8-9 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast.
All agree that the inward man is renewed day by day ... 2 Cor 4:16 For which cause we faint not; but though our outward man perish, yet the inward man is renewed day by day.
And again, I would caution you against misapplication of what Scripture indicates concerning those who are descended from Adam (after the image/likeness of Adam) and your claim that because Jesus took part, that means His flesh was corrupt.
Learn to differentiate between what is written about us (all of mankind ... image/likeness of Adam) and what is written about Him (the only begotten Son of God ... not image/likeness of Adam).
Your views are heretical. You have been shown the truth repeatedly. You are demonstrating that you are stubborn and unteachable.Yes. Of course his flesh was corrupted that he inherited from his mother. God does not have flesh to pass down to the next family member. No geanalolgy in the Godhead .
It must a rudiment of this corrupted world for the one time "demonstration" as a outward show time of the work of pouring out His unseen Spirit on the flesh of the Son of man not to be confused with the Son of God not seen a attribute .
How else could he display what the eyes cannot see?
Not in respect to flesh did during the foundation (6 days) of the world. The one time "demonstration" is not the actual unseen work that alone did profit. .
I understand what it mean to profit for nothing, nada zip as far a what the eyes sees. It looks like its something you have to work on if you desire to make God into a man as us ..
John6: 63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the "flesh" profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.
Where are the verse that give us the idea his flesh did profit as if God was a man as us to begin with?
It is shown by the fact it ages and in dying. He did not offer his flesh and blood as a sacrifice but did pour out his incorruptible Spirit.. No such thing as holiness of the flesh .
2 Corinthians 5:7 (For we walk by faith, (Christ's) not by sight:)
As He matured from infant to adult, yes, the Lord Jesus Christ "aged". However, was Adam an infant when God formed him? Of course not. God formed Adam as a fully mature adult.Yes his flesh as the Son of man aged just like ours.
The genealogy of the Lord Jesus Christ: And the angel answered and said to her, “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Highest will overshadow you; therefore, also, that Holy One who is to be born will be called the Son of God (Luke 1:35).garee said:No genealogy in the god head .
In your example, you forgot the Lord Jesus Christ (One seen(One)). So your example proves "nothing, nada, zip".garee said:Two kinds of seeds .One that profits having power to quicken the soul the other profits for nothing, nada, zip .
1) Ones seen(many) and 2) one not seen spiritual
He was declared to be the Son of God before He was born:garee said:Romans 1:3-5 King James Version (KJV) Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh; And "declared" to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead: By whom we have received grace and apostleship, for obedience to the faith among all nations, for his name:
Hebrews 10:19-20garee said:No power attributed to the flesh (what the lust of the eyes see, or lust of the flesh, what the hand feels.)
How many times has it been explained to you, garee, that when we give proper honor and respect to the Lord Jesus Christ for His earthly walk, that is not us having a "desire to make God into a man as us".It looks like its something you have to work on if you desire to make God into a man as us ..
Heresy. Jesus did not inherit any corruption from His mother.Yes. Of course his flesh was corrupted that he inherited from his mother.
Fallacy: straw man argument.God does not have flesh to pass down to the next family member. No geanalolgy in the Godhead .
The Son of Man IS the Son of God. Trace the two terms in Scripture and you will see that.It must a rudiment of this corrupted world for the one time "demonstration" as a outward show time of the work of pouring out His unseen Spirit on the flesh of the Son of man not to be confused with the Son of God not seen a attribute .
Once again, you have taken this verse out of its immediate context and corrupted its meaning.I understand what it mean to profit for nothing, nada zip as far a what the eyes sees. It looks like its something you have to work on if you desire to make God into a man as us ..
John6: 63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the "flesh" profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.
Your question is deeply flawed, and does not represent my position. It's yet another straw man argument. You don't understand what I believe, because you are too busy arguing against what I don't believe.Where are the verse that give us the idea his flesh did profit as if God was a man as us to begin with?
You keep saying "no such thing as holiness of the flesh" as though it is a quote from Scripture. It isn't.It is shown by the fact it ages and in dying. He did not offer his flesh and blood as a sacrifice but did pour out his incorruptible Spirit.. No such thing as holiness of the flesh .
You're adding to the word of God and corrupting your own understanding.
[QUOTE="Every scholar does NOT recognize that they are men in Genesis 6. Where did you get that nonsense?
Otherwise, you would have to interpret it as Jesus saying that in the last days before the end comes, as in the days of Noah, Angels will be taking wives again like they did before the flood, and yet no one interprets these statements of Jesus as referring to angels do they?
Please disregard that whole post.I interpret it this way. The Bible calls this kingdom, iron mixed with miry clay as prophesied in Daniel.
Daniel 2
41 And whereas thou sawest the feet and toes, part of potters' clay, and part of iron, the kingdom shall be divided; but there shall be in it of the strength of the iron, forasmuch as thou sawest the iron mixed with miry clay.
42 And as the toes of the feet were part of iron, and part of clay, so the kingdom shall be partly strong, and partly broken.
43 And whereas thou sawest iron mixed with miry clay, they shall mingle themselves with the seed of men: but they shall not cleave one to another, even as iron is not mixed with clay.
44 And in the days of these kings shall the God of heaven set up a kingdom, which shall never be destroyed: and the kingdom shall not be left to other people, but it shall break in pieces and consume all these kingdoms, and it shall stand for ever.
Heresy. Jesus did not inherit any corruption from His mother.
[/QUOTE]I think you misunderstood my statement. For all these centuries everyone who has written about Matt 24:37-38 interprets it as Jesus referring to the activity of people in the days of Noah. And of course, they would be correct. Now we assume Jesus was referencing something in the bible about the activity of people in the days of Noah, that there is something in the scripture Jesus is talking about that we can look and read for ourselves to confirm what people were doing in the days of Noah regarding this marrying and giving in marriage of which he speaks and of course we find it only in this passage in Gen 6. If this is the scripture Jesus is referring to and it is assumed that the disciples understood Jesus as talking about what people were doing in the days of Noah then we are thereby concluding that Jesus interpreted sons of god as people and not fallen angels. Otherwise, you would have to interpret it as Jesus saying that in the last days before the end comes, as in the days of Noah, Angels will be taking wives again like they did before the flood, and yet no one interprets these statements of Jesus as referring to angels do they? I look forward to an intelligent answer concerning how to interpret these statements of Jesus in Matt 24:37-38. 1) was he referring to a scripture in the bible or just making a statement that you cannot reference in the scriptures concerning the days of Noah? 2) If he was referring to something in Gen what scriptures was he referring to that speak of people marrying in the days of Noah?
Not in Scripture it isn't.I could agree. . . . if words did not have meaning attached. . . not subject to change then we can make the flesh and blood not corruptible ...
To corrupt is to age.. At what age did the body of the Son of man stop aging?
Isa 24:20-22I interpret it this way. The Bible calls this kingdom, iron mixed with miry clay as prophesied in Daniel.
Daniel 2
41 And whereas thou sawest the feet and toes, part of potters' clay, and part of iron, the kingdom shall be divided; but there shall be in it of the strength of the iron, forasmuch as thou sawest the iron mixed with miry clay.
42 And as the toes of the feet were part of iron, and part of clay, so the kingdom shall be partly strong, and partly broken.
43 And whereas thou sawest iron mixed with miry clay, they shall mingle themselves with the seed of men: but they shall not cleave one to another, even as iron is not mixed with clay.
44 And in the days of these kings shall the God of heaven set up a kingdom, which shall never be destroyed: and the kingdom shall not be left to other people, but it shall break in pieces and consume all these kingdoms, and it shall stand for ever.
The Lord Jesus Christ laid His life down:Was the flesh of Jesus cut off
Yessss!!! The Lord Jesus Christ will come back.garee said:or are we to look for a body of flesh 2000 plus years.?
Revelation 19:garee said:What will it look like?
The Lord Jesus Christ laid His life down:
John 10:15 As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep.
Yessss!!! The Lord Jesus Christ will come back
Your out-of-context interpretation of "the flesh profiteth for nothing" is incorrect. I'm wondering how many times you need to be told the truth before you start to consider that you might be wrong.Yes he did .He poured out his unseen Holy Spirit the source of life on dead flesh in order to put away sin in the flesh . The flesh as that seen profited for zero. Flesh and blood without the spirit has no spirit life to offer .