Why? Give proof.Just kidding, the KJV is the holy preserved words of God in the English language.
Why? Give proof.Just kidding, the KJV is the holy preserved words of God in the English language.
So He was preserving His word from the beginning only to be revealed in the KJV of the Bible? Where is your scriptural support for this? I don't ever recall reading a passage that says: in 1611 A.D. I will reveal My perfect word to the English-speaking world in the KJV of the Bible; listen to it. Seems to me, something this critically important would get a mention.
Why? Give proof.
So you arbitrarily choose the KJV?Of course the bible doesn't mention 1611. It's that your case against the KJV? Did God promise to preserve his word? Where is it? Where is God's completed, perfect, holy word?
Inspiration without preservation is useless for future generations.
1. Not true1. Contains no errors
2. Perfect time in history
3. Fulfillment of God's promise
4. Manuscript evidence
5. The fruit it has produced
6. No copyright
7. It exalts the Lord Jesus Christ
So you arbitrarily choose the KJV?
1. Not true
2. Why? How?
3. What promise?
4. What manuscript evidence?
5. What fruit?
6 has nothing to do with anything
7 no more than any other English bible
Of course the bible doesn't mention 1611. It's that your case against the KJV? Did God promise to preserve his word? Where is it? Where is God's completed, perfect, holy word?
Inspiration without preservation is useless for future generations.
No, it's not a case against the KJV per se, but against the ridiculous idea that it's the one and only source of His inspired word. But it's not the only case; see my post above #242. God can preserve His word without relying on a single volume. It's much more likely that it's been preserved in the majority of manuscripts, not just a few. And when you ignore 90% of all the other evidence and call it corrupted you impede the truth, not help it.
I've learned from experience that you won't be swayed by reason or evidence because your belief is irrational and delusional. You'll just have to figure it out on your own.
It might be the KJV ushered in the Laodicea era. If one was to believe the letters to the churches are eras, which there is no evidence to support.From a friend...
#2 The King James Bible was not translated during the apostate and lukewarm Laodicean church period, like the new translations. The Laodicean period is the last church period before the Second Coming of Christ. It is the last of the seven church periods in Revelation chapters two and three. One can clearly see that we are living in the Laodicean period today by simply comparing modern churches to the church of Revelation 3:14-22. This lukewarm period began toward the end of the 1800's and will continue until Christ returns. The new versions fit well into the lukewarm churches, because they are lukewarm "bibles."
The Authorized Version, however, was translated LONG BEFORE the Laodicean churches appeared. It was translated during the Philadelphia church period, which is the best church period of all. It was this church that the Lord Jesus COMMENDED for KEEPING HIS WORD( Rev. 3:8-10)!
In 1611, when the King James Bible was completed, the scourge of lukewarm Laodicea had not yet swept over the world. There was no "scientific" crowd around in 1611 to put pressure on the translators. There was no civil rights movement going on at this time to influence the work of these men. The women were not screaming for "equal rights," and the humanists and socialists had not yet taken control. The massive army of liberal and modernistic preachers had not yet been assembled. The open public denial of God's word and the Deity of Christ was practically unheard of among ministers. It wasn't until the twentieth century that professing Christianity became flooded with lukewarm preachers who would be willing to compromise the word of God for self gain.
The greatest missionary work in church history occurred between 1700 and 1900, so it makes perfect sense that God would have a Bible ready for this great work, and He did - the KJV. Unfortunately, the new translations appeared a bit LATE on the scene! Think about that.
Either one is the word of God or none. There can't be more than one since they contain different words and even different truths.
That is why the Matthew Mark and Luke are not exactly the same.Either one is the word of God or none. There can't be more than one since they contain different words and even different truths.
What great missionary work occured during the so called Laodicea church age? That seems a contradiction. We are luke warm but doing great mission work???
Someone has really done a number on you.
That is why the Matthew Mark and Luke are not exactly the same.
Either one is the word of God or none. There can't be more than one since they contain different words and even different truths.
Double talk .But each one contains the truth. There is no contradiction of the truth.