Gospel Confusion...

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I know Paul said he has to die daily, we for sure will sin and we have to also.

This is how we get rid of our sins after we have been baptized in JESUS name.

1 John 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

No one is perfect, we all sin, but thanks be to God, we have an advocate — Jesus

We can still fall, Jesus warns us to be mindful and careful; but Jesus can save us, if we repent.
 
No one is perfect, we all sin, but thanks be to God, we have an advocate — Jesus

We can still fall, Jesus warns us to be mindful and careful; but Jesus can save us, if we repent.

Repenting is the key, he answers KNEE mail.
 
John 9:3 Jesus answered, Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents: but that the works of God should be made manifest in him.

So JESUS said "Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents"

That healeing was done for "but that the works of God should be made manifest in him"

The healing proved no one but GOD could have healed him.

And you say they did sin, wonder why there is Gospel confusion???

Not even going to ask.
So they had never sinned?
 
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So they had never sinned?

JESUS the one who knows how many hairs are on your head, the one who know how much sand is on the beach said they NEVER sinned.

SO THEY NEVER SINNED.

This is why there is so much confusion about HIS word it says what it says humans need to keep their opinion out of it.

HIS word is ALIVE just like HE is and HE doesn't lie it's not hard to understand at all.

It's our choice believe it or not.

Tell me is there some scripture you say is 100% true?

Or just some?


I'm sorry if I'm rude sometimes, I have no tact.
 
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John 9:3 Jesus answered, Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents: but that the works of God should be made manifest in him.

So JESUS said "Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents"

That healeing was done for "but that the works of God should be made manifest in him"

The healing proved no one but GOD could have healed him.

And you say they did sin, wonder why there is Gospel confusion???

Not even going to ask.
But context is vital. The question the disciples had asked was whether the man's own sin caused him to be born blind, nor the sin of his parents. His reply was not intended to give the idea that the man and his parents were sinlessly perfect, and had no need of a Saviour, but that the man's blindness was not a result of sin. As John Gill wrote in his commentry on that verse:

"Not but that both were guilty of original sin, and had committed actual transgressions; but Christ's answer is to be considered agreeable to the design of the question; and the sense is, that it was not any sin that either of them had committed, whilst he was in the womb, or previous to his birth, that was the cause of this blindness; otherwise, all such irregularities and afflictions arise from sin, and the fall of man, as does that spiritual blindness with which all mankind are attended:"
 
I suggest you don't assume, it's rather presumptuous.

I think I understand your point, and I'm sorry I didn't get it.

No doubt the blind man and his parents sinned, they were born in sin.

However it wasn't their sins that caused the blindness.
 
But context is vital. The question the disciples had asked was whether the man's own sin caused him to be born blind, nor the sin of his parents. His reply was not intended to give the idea that the man and his parents were sinlessly perfect, and had no need of a Saviour, but that the man's blindness was not a result of sin. As John Gill wrote in his commentry on that verse:

"Not but that both were guilty of original sin, and had committed actual transgressions; but Christ's answer is to be considered agreeable to the design of the question; and the sense is, that it was not any sin that either of them had committed, whilst he was in the womb, or previous to his birth, that was the cause of this blindness; otherwise, all such irregularities and afflictions arise from sin, and the fall of man, as does that spiritual blindness with which all mankind are attended:"

Thank you, LOL, I just sent this to BillG.

I think I understand your point, and I'm sorry I didn't get it.

No doubt the blind man and his parents sinned, they were born in sin.

How ever it wasn't their sins that caused the blindness.
 
What you are saying is not Scriptural!
Hello, I am not sure we have met. I am confused by what you are asking. It is not scriptural that if we try to be justified by works we will fail?

Would you agree that we are supposed to be like Jesus, and follow the NT pattern?
I believe we should follow all Jesus commands and be like him.

But to do any of these as a means of trying to get saved. that would be a work of merit
 
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I think I understand your point, and I'm sorry I didn't get it.

No doubt the blind man and his parents sinned, they were born in sin.

However it wasn't their sins that caused the blindness.

Born in sin? A baby is sinless, this is why they are not baptized. Baptism is for repentance of sins; this requires deep thought and understanding, accountability for your actions. Babies and young children don’t have this understanding.

This blind man was blind from birth for the very purpose to show God’s power and glory. Idk why people keep arguing over this simple statement? When God says something, it’s gospel, we should take it at face value……
 
Born in sin? A baby is sinless, this is why they are not baptized. Baptism is for repentance of sins; this requires deep thought and understanding, accountability for your actions. Babies and young children don’t have this understanding.

This blind man was blind from birth for the very purpose to show God’s power and glory. Idk why people keep arguing over this simple statement? When God says something, it’s gospel, we should take it at face value……

Babies are born in sin, but you are right they do not have the ability to repent and follow JESUS when they do come of age they make the choice to follow JESUS and get baptized or not.

I think the Jews put a age of accountability at 13?

Yep, i believe you to be 100% right with the blind man.

When you say HIS word is gospel it clearing says,

John 3:3 Jesus answered, Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents: but that the works of God should be made manifest in him.

It is very clear FACE VALUE that the child, the wife or the husband never sinned.

That is how I read it, BUT in this case we need to use other scriputes because there was ONLY ONE person born sin free.

Since I was wrong in my first statement says they never sinned, I say I was mistaken and said i was sorry.

Also thank you for clarifying, if someone is wrong they should be called out on it.
 
please show the word baptize in Jesus discussion with Nicodemus.

What do you think the word water means?

It sure wasn't natural birth which JESUS had to clarife since Nicodemus asked that question in verse 4.

John 3:6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.

This is what happened when JESUS was done speaking to Nicodemus,

John 3,
22 After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judaea; and there he tarried with them, and baptized.
23 And John also was baptizing in Aenon near to Salim, because there was much water there: and they came, and were baptized.

The propose of the water is made clear which started with John the baptist,

Mark 1:4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.

Doesn't this verse aline with Mark 1:4 and John 3:5? Matter a fact aligns with John 3:5 word for word just explained more detail.

Acts 2:38-39
King James Version
38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

39 For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call.
 
so we are saved, lose salvation, get resaved lose salvation get resaved.

where is this in scripture?

After we are reborn, believe, repent, get baptized in JESUS name to get rid of our sins.

We can't just go back to our old life style and expect to go to Heaven!

That does not give us a free past to live Satan like and go to Heaven.

JESUS said,
Matthew 24:13 But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved.

Since sins separates us for GOD, we can't enter Heave with sin.

Just a THOUGHT will send up to Hell.
Matthew 5:28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.

1 Corinthians 6:9-10
King James Version
9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,

10 Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God.

His word is clear, after we are reborn if we just look at a women we have committed adultery and are HELL BOUND.

But after that thought, since we know we have sinned against GOD all we need to do is repent and confess them to JESUS and he will forgive us.

1 John 1:8-9
King James Version
8 If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.

9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

That is why Paul said,
1 Corinthians 15:31 I protest by your rejoicing which I have in Christ Jesus our Lord, I die daily.
 
What do you think the word water means?

It sure wasn't natural birth which JESUS had to clarife since Nicodemus asked that question in verse 4.

John 3:6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.

This is what happened when JESUS was done speaking to Nicodemus,

John 3,
22 After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judaea; and there he tarried with them, and baptized.
23 And John also was baptizing in Aenon near to Salim, because there was much water there: and they came, and were baptized.

The propose of the water is made clear which started with John the baptist,

Mark 1:4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.

Doesn't this verse aline with Mark 1:4 and John 3:5? Matter a fact aligns with John 3:5 word for word just explained more detail.

Acts 2:38-39
King James Version
38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

39 For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call.
A birth signifies something that you are not responsible for but something only God can give or do.

So to be born of water cannot be something you can just choose and do. It must be something that God does, and Has Done.

See Eph 5:26

I also wonder about the wording of Mark 1:4 If there were a physical water baptism that could remove sins why not just state "John did baptize in the wilderness to remove sin". Why say John baptized and preached baptism. Was John just preaching about the water baptism he was performing? Or was his preaching the ACTUAL baptism?

In other words, does the word baptism ALWAYS mean the physical act performed by being dunked in water? Or does it sometimes mean being immersed and focused on the subject being mentioned?

This is something I've wondered a lot about. Especially when people claim a physical act performed by men can do what only God Can Do.
 
A birth signifies something that you are not responsible for but something only God can give or do.

So to be born of water cannot be something you can just choose and do. It must be something that God does, and Has Done.

See Eph 5:26

I also wonder about the wording of Mark 1:4 If there were a physical water baptism that could remove sins why not just state "John did baptize in the wilderness to remove sin". Why say John baptized and preached baptism. Was John just preaching about the water baptism he was performing? Or was his preaching the ACTUAL baptism?

In other words, does the word baptism ALWAYS mean the physical act performed by being dunked in water? Or does it sometimes mean being immersed and focused on the subject being mentioned?

This is something I've wondered a lot about. Especially when people claim a physical act performed by men can do what only God Can Do.

I will start this out with I have NO tack, sorry if I seem rude in any why.

Are you implying that Ephesians 5:26 is saying what?

If we read HIS word our sins are goon?

Mark 1:4 says what it says.

How does GOD remove our sins?

Matthew 3:13-17
King James Version
13 Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him.

14 But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?

15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

16 And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him:

17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.

Why would JESUS go to John to be baptized?
Verse 15 to fulfil all righteousness!

Like JESUS was baptized to full all righteousness we also, it's a commandment and the ONLY way for us to remove our sins.

As we are bring obedient to HIS word, he is also being obedient to HIS word and forgiving our sins.

1 Peter 3:21 The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ: