The KJV of 2 Chronicles 22:2 says, "Forty and two years old was Ahaziah when he began to reign" in contradiction to 2 Kings 8:26 "Two and twenty years old was Ahaziah when he began to reign."
Don't bother posting your convoluted excuse for this; your use of "lie" negates the validity of it.
i think it's more accurate to say that people who believe the KJV is 100% accurate and perfect in every way have never accepted any proof to the contrary.
i think it's more accurate to say that people who believe the KJV is 100% accurate and perfect in every way have never accepted any proof to the contrary.
i mean, if i mention that the words 'yam suph' cannot possibly be legitimately translated as 'red sea' but that it unquestionably means 'sea of reeds' -- even if you acquiesce the fact you will argue that 'red sea' is superior to a faithful & accurate translation for some reason, right?
it seems to me it's not so much that it's never been proven to be a less than ideal translation into the foreign language that English is, but that to those who believe that it is, no proof will ever be sufficient to make them believe otherwise.
I'm glad you recognize this, as it applies to all translations.There is always a truthful reconciliation for every so called accusation.
I'm glad you recognize this, as it applies to all translations.
Whereas, the new versions have outright lies and obvious contradictions.
This has been debunked many times in many other threads.
I don't mind notes, but the notes never take precedent over the clear reading of the text. The notes are the opinions of the author. In some cases in the new versions the notes are true and the text is a lie as in 2 Samuel 21:19.
Nope it does not have the same message, if it did it would not be a different gospel. That’s why Paul said whoever teaches it, let them literally be damned,Do you see the baby
Actually, the KJV defines itself as always. The wording is elementary. It's not another, meaning, it's the same gospel message but it's been perverted by adding to it, and in this case the works or circumcision. Adding anything to the cross is a perversion.
Which is why he said they should be dammed... which is no good news ("gospel") at all.
smh...
Nope it does not have the same message, if it did it would not be a different gospel. That’s why Paul said whoever teaches it, let them literally be damned,
the KJV seriously got it wrong here,
Yet the KJV got it wrong this time, even the NKJV had a better translation, because it corrected the kjv’s mistakeIt doesn't surprise me that the new version got it wrong since they are in league with the RCC which perverts the gospel of Christ.
Thanks for sharing that link! It's very informative and clearly identifies the issues behind differences between NIV and KJV wording.
The irony is that before I became a Christian, I did a lot of research in regards to Bible translations.Thanks for sharing that link! It's very informative and clearly identifies the issues behind differences between NIV and KJV wording.
Thanks for sharing that link! It's very informative and clearly identifies the issues behind differences between NIV and KJV wording.
I found a copy of a 1984 NIV on Amazon. I used it extensively in 2018 and 2019. It fell apart and I'm trying to find another.The ever changing, gender neutered “new” 2011 NIV has changed about 40% of the verses from the way they read in the 1984 NIV, and they often change or add to the underlying Greek and Hebrew texts they previously followed. You can see for yourself the changes they have now made at this site here -
http://www.biblewebapp.com/niv2011-changes/#summary
At this site you will see that the new 2011 NIV has changed the wording of 40% of the verses from the way they were written in the 1984 NIV. They have removed 32,863 words and added 34,469 different words. They often change or add to the Hebrew text that they previously used and they have changed the underlying Greek text numerous times in their New Testament.
In some very few places, they have made it right. BUT for the most part, the new NIV 2011 has gotten a lot worse than even their 1984 NIV edition was. I will show you several examples in this study.
Again, a more accurate translation would be that these Jews were teaching a different gospel, which is not another...Continuation on Another Gospel
Heteros as defined by Thayer where the primary meaning is another as used in Galatian 1:6 which is defined also as “different” being used by Homer .
2. to quality; another i. e. one not of the same nature, form, class, kind; different (so in Greek writings from Homer down): Romans 7:23; 1 Corinthians 14:21; 1 Corinthians 15:40; 2 Corinthians 11:4; Galatians 1:6; Hebrews 7:11, 13, 15; James 2:25; Jude 1:7. (Synonym: see ἄλλος.)
James Strong has again a primary usage of “another” or the meaning of “other” or others put it “the other”
Strong's Concordance
heteros: other
Original Word: ἕτερος, α, ον
Part of Speech: Adjective
Transliteration: heteros
Phonetic Spelling: (het'-er-os)
Definition: other
Usage: (a) of two: another, a second, (b) other, different, (c) one's neighbor
Hanbook of Greek Synonyms by Alexandre Pillon pp.57 Heteros means “of two”, other, another while Allos is different.
The KJV “an other” is contracted which is the same as another. The context in the book of Galatian is “faith + works”. The gospel message is to be receive by faith, the problem is that Judaizers have introduce “an other” gospel which is not another but a mixture, corrupting the true gospel by adding a work based salvation or the Law on the already established faith of the Galatian believer's and that is the problem. It is not "different gospel" in the sense that it does not involved faith so that this will introduce another one of different kind i.e. salvation is by Law or works only, but rather it is Grace + Law that was introduce to the Galatian believers.
I found a copy of a 1984 NIV on Amazon. I used it extensively in 2018 and 2019. It fell apart and I'm trying to find another.