Can We Really Exercise Free Will?

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No, I don't understand because you're completely wrong so there is nothing there to be understood. But I would expect that kind of absurd reply from you. FYI God wrote the rest of that verse, with the "it is" included in it. He also wrote the next verse too. Must be nice to be able to rearrange Scripture to satisfy your preferences. Not all of us would try that - given that it was ALL written by God.
It's in the Bible.

That means if you choose not to imply that IF shows us that Paul is no way making a disclaimer but stating a proposition it can only mean you are willing to change what God says so it says what you want which is not Godly at all.
 
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Paul DOESN'T Say it is veiled!!

Paul said IF

That means IT IS NOT VEILED!
Consider also that word order in the Greek does NOT set logical precedent as it usually does in English. Rather the precedent is substantiated by the terms themselves.

As you well know, legit Biblical literacy needs to be divorced from Calvinism for it to be saleable....🥲
 
all these verses go togeather in the same context

2 Corinthians 4:3-4

John 1:5

John 3:18

Ephesians 4:18

Matthew 6:23
But nowhere did Paul say it most definitely is VEILED.

It only says if it is.

How do you make it become something when God makes it means it doesn't mean the same thing?
 
Consider also that word order in the Greek does NOT set logical precedent as it usually does in English. Rather the precedent is substantiated by the terms themselves.

As you well know, legit Biblical literacy needs to be divorced from Calvinism for it to be saleable....🥲
Amen!
 
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It's in the Bible.

That means if you choose not to imply that IF shows us that Paul is no way making a disclaimer but stating a proposition it can only mean you are willing to change what God says so it says what you want which is not Godly at all.

Wrong! The "if" is relative to everyone - some are of the everyone are not blinded; some of them are blinded, hence the "if". That is why the "it is" (unconditional - a statement of fact) could be/was used later in the verse about those blinded - the blinded portion of the everyone. Understand? Read the next verse.
 
Wrong! The "if" is relative to everyone - some are of the everyone are not blinded; some of them are blinded, hence the "if". That is why the "it is" (unconditional - a statement of fact) could be/was used later in the verse about those blinded - the blinded portion of the everyone. Understand? Read the next verse.
If it is...

That is different than ... it is.

You just hate the fact that you have been twisting Scripture and got caught. Get over it. This is what discussion boards are about. The opportunity to present something not true like YOU DID and get caught trying to do it.

If this was a court room you would be under arrest.
 
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If it is...

That is different than ... it is.

You just hate the fact that you have been twisting Scripture and got caught. Get over it. This is what discussion boards are about. The opportunity to present something not true like YOU DID and get caught trying to do it.

If this was a court room you would be under arrest.

And you would be sent to an insane asylum
 
But nowhere did Paul say it most definitely is VEILED.

It only says if it is.

How do you make it become something when God makes it means it doesn't mean the same thing?
I gave you five verses all related,

How do answer this one

Ephesians 4:18
 
It's in the Bible.

That means if you choose not to imply that IF shows us that Paul is no way making a disclaimer but stating a proposition it can only mean you are willing to change what God says so it says what you want which is not Godly at all.
Mat 11:14 - And ***if*** ye will receive it, this is Elias, which was for to come.

This conditional clause IF is ubiquitous in Scripture. The conditional clause "if" is used to introduce a condition and the consequence or result of that condition. It's fundamental to expressing hypothetical situations, possibilities, and cause-and-effect relationships.

And yes, as far as Calvinism is concerned, Biblical illiteracy is a feature not a bug. And a very necessary feature.
 
I gave you five verses all related,

How do answer this one

Ephesians 4:18
How is it we're talking about ONE VERSE and since you understand that has been explained you now add more Verses?

Your other Verses still don't change the meaning of 2 Corinthians.
 
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Mat 11:14 - And ***if*** ye will receive it, this is Elias, which was for to come.

This conditional clause IF is ubiquitous in Scripture. The conditional clause "if" is used to introduce a condition and the consequence or result of that condition. It's fundamental to expressing hypothetical situations, possibilities, and cause-and-effect relationships.

And yes, as far as Calvinism is concerned, Biblical illiteracy is a feature not a bug. And a very necessary feature.
Amen!!
 
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I doubt that since I am not ignoring the fact that verse begins with IF....

Anyone educational immediately knows what that means.

And you need remedial reading classes too. There are more words in the verse than "if" - this may come as quite a shock to you
but they all need to be read.
 
Jesus declares in John 11:25 of those who believe in Him, "...though he were dead, yet shall he live," and when placed next to God's declaration in Genesis 2:17 regarding eating from the tree, that some have explained as saying, "... in dying you will die."
These are peculiarly reflective one of the other. One saying, "in dying you will die," and the Other saying, "... in dying you will live."
And, placing Hebrews 2:15 of those in bondage against Matthew 16:25, among others saying the same, we all die with the only difference being dying in fear or dying in faith. :unsure:
Very edifying thanks 🙏
 
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And you need remedial reading classes too. There are more words in the verse than "if" - this may come as quite a shock to you
but they all need to be read.
It can have a million words but the fact God begins the Verse with IF changes anything you believe.
 
How is it we're talking about ONE VERSE and since you understand that has been explained you now add more Verses?

Your other Verses still don't change the meaning of 2 Corinthians.
you asked for verses to back up 2 Corinthians 4:3-4

So which is it now, ? and you still haven't answered again here. Do you enjoy playing these games ?

Is the light hidden to these people

Ephesians 4:18
 
You see what you have done? When you say such stupid, blasphemous things, you reveal your very low view of sin's disastrous effects upon man's heart and nature. You essentially deny that there were any really destructive effects of sin upon the hearts, minds and souls of man. Your very low view of sin artificially and unjustifiably exalts man.

Only God creates the soul which the heart is an aspect of so if you think God creates the heart innately evil, then what she said is not blasphemous for it would be a reflection of your thinking not hers. God would indeed have created men to hate him and then doubled down by placing that soul into a body with a sin nature, a nature that is anti-God.

The heart becomes corrupt due to two things, ignorance (being cut off from God) and the deceptive influence of the sin nature. God counters that corruption with grace and truth which always comes first. When that grace and truth is rejected, then the heart becomes corrupt. If it were not so, no-one could learn of God in order to be drawn to Christ. God is not a "caveman" dragging us along by the hair. We are drawn like a moth to a flame for the soul desires the light the Lord reveals as it is created in His image and likeness and it is simply sanity to want the one on whom our created nature is based.